I thought it was already proved, it isn't?

1 sandwich = 2 pieces of bread

1 woman = 2 boobs

1 child = 2 creators

1 time = 2 trips to the clinic

etc.

yes i can and its the stupidest question but ill show you how

1 zero = 2 zeroes

(add zeoes as many times as hell it is zero only)

(by mathematics)

1z = 2z (zero=z, let us assume)

therefore 1= 2 x z/z

(at last z is equal to z so cancelled)

1=2

(the final answer)

This is one explanation:

1.0=2.0;

then, cancelling 0 on both sides, we get,

1=2.

HENCE PROVED!

The dot in between indicates Dot Product>

a = b

a + 2 x 5 = b squared

ba = 2 x 5 squared

b a n a n a s is bananas

5a = 5b

But when you implement the affect of gravitiy the force becomes directly pi

Exept when snoop dog is shagging his ho

and so

1 = 2

yes man

just take your own example

1 man=2 balls

1 boy =2 girlfriends

No, Ashley, you need not multiply before cancelling.

The reasoning in math is clear:

if a x b = b X c;

Then you directly cancel b, don't you?

No, Ashley, you need not multiply before cancelling.

The reasoning in math is clear:

if a x b = b X c;

Then you directly cancel b, don't you?

................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................

Ok ok! I shall prove it. Watch this and see my proof:

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=RkSow7FtWmA&feature;=related

1 molecule of hydrogen = 2 atoms of hydrogen

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No, I can't prove that, but I can prove that 25 divided by 5 is 14.

http://www.guzer.com/videos/funny_math.php

If you take the derivative of both of them then you get:

1' = 2'

since:

1' = 0

and

2' = 0

and

0=0,

BUT

that is the derivative, that is not the actual number itself. So sorry, no dice.

Since 2 is defined as 1 + 1 (at least in base 3 and above), 2 != 1. If 1 = 2, then mathematics would fall apart because everything would equal everything else. Example: 666 = 1337 (which may or may not be true ;) ).

Proof by contradiction:

1 = 2

1 + 1 = 2 + 1

2 = 3

Since 1 = 2,

1 = 2 = 3

Repeat:

1 = 2

1 + 1 + 1 = 2 + 1 + 1

3 = 4

Since 1 = 2 and 2 = 3,

1 = 2 = 3 = 4

and so on.

You can also go in the negative direction:

1 = 2

1 - 1 = 2 - 1

0 = 1

However, 0 is defined as 0 + x = x and 1 is defined as 1x = x by the existence of 0 and 1 axiom. Therefore, if you try to substitute 0 for 1 or 1 for 0, you get contradictions: 1 + x = x and 0x = x. Since an axiom cannot and must not be contradicted, 1 != 2.

1.0=2.0,

ok

but, 1/2=0/0!

This is not correct, is it!

also, 1=2x 0/0 is not correct as well!

This is because: any thing by 0 is not defined!