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Is Judaism/Christianity polytheistic or monolatry?
Genesis 1:26 "Then God said, “Let Us make man in Our image, according to Our likeness"
Genesis 3:22 "Then the Lord God said, “Behold, the man has become like one of Us, to know good and evil."
Genesis 11:7 "Come, let Us go down and there confuse their language, that they may not understand one another’s speech.”
Deuteronomy 32:8-9 "When Elyon divided the nations, when he separated the sons of Adam,
he established the borders of the nations according to the number of the sons of the gods.
Yahweh’s portion was his people, [Israel] his allotted inheritance."
Psalm 82:1 "God stands in the congregation of the mighty; He judges among the gods."
Psalm 89:6-7 "For who in the skies can compare to [Jehovah]? Who is like [Jehovah] among the [sons of God], a God who is honored [in the great assembly of the holy ones], and more awesome than all who surround him?"
Psalm 95:3 "For the Lord is the great God,
And the great King above all gods."
Psalm 97:7 "Let all be put to shame who serve carved images,
Who boast of idols.
Worship Him, all you gods."
Psalm 135:5 "For I know that the Lord is great,
And our Lord is above all gods."
Polytheistic
Side Score: 51
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Monolatry
Side Score: 54
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In the Jewish texts (old testiment) God is a tribal God of the hebrews, he only cares about them and smites everyone else who stands in their way. In the Christian texts (New Testiment) he is all of a sudden a compassionate all loving(well more or so than he was before) God who wants to save everybody, theres clearly an inconsistency within Gods attitude. Side: Polytheistic
God is the same today, and in the New Testament, as He was in the Old Testament. God only cares for His people (in the personal sense), which the New Testament reveals to be anyone who believes in God, since God grafts the Gentiles into God's tree, which is Christ and Israel together. God is compassionate and loving only to His people (in the personal sense), so it might seem that He was only compassionate in the New Testament. God cares for everyone in a broad common grace sense, which is to say that they have been given life, and food and family and stuff, and they are not struck down immediately after sinning. Side: Polytheistic
He didn't. He said in the Old Testament that His covenant would extend to the Gentiles. Gentiles even wrote some of the Psalms. As John the Baptist said, God can make out of stones descendants of Abraham. Paul, then, said that all who have faith are those who are descendants of Abraham, who are considered throughout the Old Testament as the chosen ones; the only thing was that the Jews assumed that "Abraham's descendants" was referring to the biological line, not the spiritual line. Side: Polytheistic
God speaks of the covenant in the Old Testament. However, it was not revealed until the New Testament. As theologians say: the Old Testament is like a room with all the pieces in place but without the light on, while the New Testament is the same room with all the pieces in the same place but with the light on. The Old Testament gives hope to the Gentiles, and speaks of God's plan to save them, while it is not fully revealed until the New Testament, when Jesus embraces everyone. Context is important. Side: Polytheistic
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God is the same yesterday ,today, and always will ne. There is only one God. God showed himself as a powerful God in the Old Testament so that they know that your doing wrong. Christ now shows his love to bring all to Salvation. God has always loved humanity abd always will. I will follow up with this Later. Side: Monolatry
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The Jews wrote the Hebrew Bible. Do you really think they would have included something that they do not believe in? When the "sons of God" came down to earth in Genesis 6:4 and had sex with human women, was that the Trinity too? Genesis 6:4 "There were giants on the earth in those days, and also afterward, when the sons of God came in to the daughters of men and they bore children to them. Those were the mighty men who were of old, men of renown." Side: Monolatry
The Jews wrote the Hebrew Bible. Do you really think they would have included something that they do not believe in? God wrote the Old Testament. When the "sons of God" came down to earth in Genesis 6:4 and had sex with human women, was that the Trinity too? Many classic interpretations of "sons of God" is referring to the line of Eve, as opposed to that of the serpent. In Genesis 3, God curses the serpent and says the following: "I will put enmity between you and the woman, / and between your offspring and her offspring; he shall bruise your head, and you shall bruise his heel.". This seems to suggest that the "line of Satan," though they were humans, were simply those who were wicked and did not follow God. The line of Eve were those who would believe in God and be seen as righteous before God. This is why Romans 8:14 states "For all who are led by the Spirit of God are sons of God." Hence, it seems to me that "sons of God" is referring to those who were God's elect, since Jesus is the firstborn of God's chosen people. We, as Christians, are adopted into God's family, as sons of the living God! You see, when you really study the Bible you see these insane connection and realize how wonderful God is! It is so interconnected and divine! :) Side: Polytheistic
God wrote the Old Testament. With his magical deity pen? According to the Bible, Moses wrote most of the Old Testament. However, many Biblical scholars believe that most of the stories of Moses are wrong and a lot of them doubt Moses even existed. Hence, it seems to me that "sons of God" is referring to those who were God's elect So, you believe that "sons of God" has multiple meanings in the Bible? I think that the Bible, being written by multiple people many years apart, evolved. Prior to the Bible, many Jews were polytheistic. By the time the Bible was written, Judaism took on a more monolatristic approach. By the time Christianity became popular, it took on a monotheistic interpretation. Side: Monolatry
With his magical deity pen? Through the Holy Spirit! According to the Bible, Moses wrote most of the Old Testament. However, many Biblical scholars believe that most of the stories of Moses are wrong and a lot of them doubt Moses even existed. I believe that God wrote the Bible through Moses. It was already written, since Christ was the embodiment of Scripture, and Jesus is eternal. I believe that Moses was real also. So, you believe that "sons of God" has multiple meanings in the Bible? It seems to me that "sons of God" has certain meanings, as God's chosen people, while "Son of God" (singular and emphasized) is referring to Jesus. I think that the Bible, being written by multiple people many years apart, evolved. Prior to the Bible, many Jews were polytheistic. By the time the Bible was written, Judaism took on a more monolatristic approach. By the time Christianity became popular, it took on a monotheistic interpretation. The Old Testament uses both the singular and plural of "God" Side: Polytheistic
Exodus 6:3 "And I appeared unto Avraham, unto Yitzchak, and unto Ya’akov, as El Shaddai, but by My Shem Hashem I did not make Myself known to them." That is God telling Moses that he appeared to Abraham, Isaac and Jacob as El Shaddai. Why is that important? Because El Shaddai was one of many Gods from the polytheistic Canaanite religion. Not only is God admitting that he was a god amongst a pantheon of other gods, but that also shows that Abraham, Isaac and Jacob were polytheistic. Abraham isn't that surprising, but why would his son Isaac be polytheistic as well... and on top of that, why would Isaac's son, Jacob, be polytheistic? Side: Monolatry
Sorry Lolzors... but that's bullshit. Anytime people are debating religion, it typically isn't going to go anywhere. However, I can only assume that I have you stumped. If you are as knowledgeable of the Bible as you think you are, you should have a response to the argument. When it comes to religion, it's the blind leading the blind. Just about every verse has an ulterior meaning in the eyes of a Christian... which to me seems like a way for them to defend their religion. We have so much historical evidence that contradicts the Bible and very little that supports it. So if you really are here just to "teach", ultimately all that you are doing is teaching your beliefs, not facts. It's practically the same as if a child was going around teaching everyone that Santa Claus is real... and in order to receive gifts from him, you need to be a good person... otherwise, you end up on the naughty list. Side: Polytheistic
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God wrote the Old Testament. 1 Corinthians 14:33 "For God is not the author of confusion, but of peace, as in all churches of the saints." If god wrote the old testament and god is not the author of confusion, then why can't anyone seem to agree on what the Bible says? Even scholars who dedicate their lives to understanding it don't agree on what it says. It's one of the most confusing book in existence. So if god wrote it, then he is the author of confusion. Side: Monolatry
Simply because God is the author of confusion, it does not mean that people will not be confused over the Bible. I can say "I am here" all day, which is very clear; someone can always ask me why my name is "here". Also, evil people are blocked from understanding the Bible, and are incapable of understanding it. So He gives truth and understanding to His elect only. Side: Polytheistic
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So which of the 41,000 denominations of Christianity are his elect and how do you know? Maybe you aren't his elect and your understanding of the Bible is being blocked. Whether or not you are his "elect" you have to admit that the Bible is confusing. For example, has anyone seen god? According to these verses the answer is yes: "And I will take away my hand, and thou shalt see my backparts." (Exodus 33:23) "And the Lord spake to Moses face to face, as a man speaketh to his friend." (Exodus 33:11) "For I have seen God face to face, and my life is preserved." (Genesis 32:30) According to these verses the answer is no: "No man hath seen God at any time." (John 1:18) "And he said, Thou canst not see my face; for there shall no man see me and live." (Exodus 33:20) "Whom no man hath seen nor can see." (1Timothy 6:16) So here we have multiple conflicting verses. How is that not confusing? Side: Monolatry
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Ignoring lolzors, I would have to interject here. God is a spirit and b extension has no physical form. He cannot be seen by humans spiritually (which is his true form) but he can be seen if he chooses to take physical form. So no man has actually seen God, but we have seen god take a form and speak with us. Side: Polytheistic
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Exodus 33:20-23 seems to say otherwise. "he said, 'you cannot see my face, for no one may see me and live.' Then the Lord said, 'There is a place near me where you may stand on a rock. When my glory passes by, I will put you in a cleft in the rock and cover you with my hand until I have passed by. Then I will remove my hand and you will see my back; but my face must not be seen.'" That doesn't sound like some temporary physical manifestation. Side: Monolatry
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You do know God didn't say this, right? Man said this in relation to all the idols the author sees from his perceptual set. These idols were called gods so saying "God is above all gods" just means that no idol should stand before him. I meant to press support but it won't change. Side: Polytheistic
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So, you are saying the word of God is not the word of God. Away with you heathen. Heathen? Mkay. Well, anyways there are clear verse that say "God said" and then you have the authors who give their viewpoint and remember this is translated over from other languages too. Why does God think idols are Gods? Says something doesn't it? He is speaking from a human perspective. When you see a random guy praising a Statue or Hera or Nemesis to you its an idol, however, to that person it's a god. See where I'm getting at? One verse even says YOUR gods. I would imagine these Gods being named and explicitly referenced. Side: Polytheistic
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It's obvious who he is talking to. Mostly the humans. Or in other cases referencing the kings who were worshipped as gods. The bible does speak of false gods like Moloch or Baal and what not. They aren't true gods. Ye are my witnesses, saith the Lord, and my servant whom I have chosen: that ye may know and believe me, and understand that I am he: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me." Isaiah 43:10. Bible makes it clear that he is the one and only. Side: Monolatry
Ye are my witnesses, saith the Lord, and my servant whom I have chosen: that ye may know and believe me, and understand that I am he: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me." Isaiah 43:10. How do we know that God isn't saying that a whole bunch of Gods can be created while He is around, but after God is gone, there will be no more Gods? Bible makes it clear that he is the one and only. Bible also makes it very clear that there are other Gods. Side: Polytheistic
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How do we know that God isn't saying that a whole bunch of Gods can be created while He is around, but after God is gone, there will be no more Gods? By reading other verses perhaps? Maybe the ones that claim he is the one and only. Bible also makes it very clear that there are other Gods. False gods? Yes. Actual deities? No. Side: Polytheistic
False gods? Yes. Actual deities? No. False gods? Yes. Actual deities? Also, yes. Joshua 10:12-13 “Sun, stand still over Gibeon, and you, moon, over the Valley of Aijalon.” So the sun stood still, and the moon stopped, till the nation avenged itself on its enemies" Seems kind of strange that he would be giving orders to giant rocks, doesn't it? Side: Monolatry
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It does if you read it in Hebrew. "And the shemesh stood still, the yarei’ach stopped, until the Goy had avenged themselves upon their enemies." Shemesh was the sun god in a few different pantheons at the time, including the Assyrian's and the Babylonian's. Two nations that controlled Israel at certain points in time. Side: Monolatry
The Bible was written by many people from different times. That is why the Bible seems so contradictory. At one time they believed one thing, years later they believed something else. That's why I say that when you read the Bible in the order that it was written, you can see the evolution of the religion... which seems to have gone from polytheistic, to monolatry and then monotheistic. Side: Monolatry
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The only evidence offered against it is the use of the Biblical phrasing. Are you asking me to rebut arguments not presented? The fact is, the language used in the OP doesn't mean what the poster thought that it meant. It doesn't confer pluralness to the subject, it confers majesty. That is how it was used in Hebrew and how it was understood later in Latin. Side: Monolatry
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I used Strong's Concordance, the recognized standard on Biblical Hebrew. There are also multiple sources from Christian, Jewish and Secular old testament scholars who make the same point. It isn't as if I invented it, I just poached the academic consensus on this issue. Side: Polytheistic
Biblical scholars? It sounds like they are saying because they never saw a different word used the word must not have existed. Which either means that God always referred to multiple Gods because there were multiple Gods, or because the word didn't exist. If there were multiple Gods, He would be saying the plural word as well. Side: Polytheistic
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This response seems completely detached from my point. It is almost as if you never actually read my post. I didn't say that they are making this argument from ignorance (we don't know a word), but rather from philological and linguistic analysis. Deriving the origins of words via related languages and tracking their use through history. Additionally, I think you simply ignored that the fact that Hebrew isn't English, and therefore uses words and structures in a different manner than English. I would recommend a re-read of my post and then a new response. Side: Monolatry
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First, let me point out that the original point here was based upon Strong's Concordance being reliable or not. The idea that Strong's Concordance is not a reliable translation of Biblical Hebrew is pretty hard to swallow. It is the standard in the field and is used not only by Christians but by many Jews as well. Regardless, your question was related to biblical scholars. Biblical scholarship is a sub-category of Ancient Literature and derives most of its tools from that field. These include Philology (study of language), archeology, anthropology, contemporary textual analysis, amongst others. Philology for example proves scholars with an understanding of how biblical Hebrew relates to the larger field of Semetic languages, how it developed, the roots and relationships amongst words, the changes that have occurred to word meaning and use over time, etc. Archeology and Anthropology give us an idea of the social and physical constructs of Israelite, Caananite and other contemporary civilizations. That understanding provides scholars with a context of how these texts related to understanding of the world in which those people existed, and the meaning often contained allusions and alegories. Contemporary textual analysis provides a form of spot checking for translations. Understanding how others who use a similar or the same language with more agreed upon understandings can help to inform less understood translations or phrasing. For example if we found that the phrase "X Y Z" was used in legal codes to mean the time harvest is taken, is is a good bet that its use in religious texts is similar. This study is especially informative when translating idioms, which are usually not very clear to later generations. For example, in 10,000 years if someone comes across the phrase "it was a cool event" they might translate that specifically as that it was cold at that event. Contextual analysis might show that we use the phrase cool to mean fun or interesting, etc and that could provide a better understanding of what is meant by that idiom. Textual analysis has been a relatively recent development in the field of ancient literature. Its biggest improvement has been the isolation of changes over time and predicting a change rate for a text over time. For example, the Bible and the Illiad have an extremely low rate of change over time given the manner of their recitation, extensive use of archaic phraseology, etc. The epic of Gilgamesh on the other hand had extensive changes over just a few hundred years as shown by the insertion of later lingo, phrasing, etc. I hope this has provided some insight into where and how biblical scholars (many if not most of whom are secular btw) analyze the text as it is presented here. Side: Monolatry
How about baal? In Old Testament, God ordered the mass murder of thousands of baal worshippers. In the Bible "gods" means a few things. One example is "idols". They called them gods, but it usually followed with a description of an idol (gold, silver, wood, etc.). But there are times when the Bible refers to gods not as idols. Like in Hebrew, which was later changed in other translations, they mention that God sat within a divine council and spoke with other Gods. Elyon being the supreme God, Yahweh acquires the land of Israel, thus becomes the God of Israel. Keep in mind that the Bible is not in the order it was written. You can see the evolution of the religion if you read it in the correct order. Side: Monolatry
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First, I should point out that you are using the work "murder" inappropriately. You are implying a legal standard against which God's actions should be weighed. Exactly what jurisdiction is God subject too? Or, do you mean that you find his actions distasteful personally and that that therefore makes an action murder? The word used in the Bible (in the Hebrew) was אֱלֹהִים 'elohiym right? Which translates to: "430 'elohiym el-o-heem' plural of 433; gods in the ordinary sense; but specifically used (in the plural thus, especially with the article) of the supreme God; occasionally applied by way of deference to magistrates; and sometimes as a superlative:--angels, X exceeding, God (gods)(-dess, -ly), X (very) great, judges, X mighty. " http://www.eliyah.com/cgi-bin/ It refers to a whole class of spiritual beings or concepts, including both God and gods and idols and even great religious leaders. The fact that you refer to the characters in "A Christmas Carol" as the Ghost of Christmas Past does not mean that you believe in ghosts. It means that you have a term for disembodied spirits (real or not). You can use it in reference to a whisp of something you saw at a graveyard or the left over flavor of something or the a person who has worked on something without official credit like a ghostwriter. Words have multiple uses and definitions, both in Hebrew and in English. Side: Monolatry
First, I should point out that you are using the work "murder" inappropriately. So tricking a bunch of Baal worshippers to come over to you and then killing them all isn't murder? You are implying a legal standard against which God's actions should be weighed. Exactly what jurisdiction is God subject too? God didn't kill them himself, he ordered someone to kill them. Seems a bit hypocritical for him to give that order considering one of the ten commandments is "Thou shalt not murder". The word used in the Bible (in the Hebrew) was אֱלֹהִים 'elohiym right? No, It was Elohim. They also used El and Elyon, and eventually just referred to him as Yahweh. So, I guess the rest of that paragraph is wrong since the word you used is wrong. It refers to a whole class of spiritual beings or concepts, including both God and gods and idols and even great religious leaders. I know that they called idols "gods", but I also know that God said that he appeared to Abraham, Isaac and Jacob as El Shaddai, who is an ancient Canaanite polytheistic deity. That would only make sense if they were polytheistic. Abraham wouldn't be so surprising, but the fact that his son and grandson were also polytheistic is a little bit puzzling. The meaning of "gods" changes throughout the Bible, a clear representation of that religion's evolution. Side: Polytheistic
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I think you should delve into what the word murder means before going any further. Specifically, what standard are you appealing to here that would make it murder? Is it your personal preference or something more objective? --- No, It was Elohim. They also used El and Elyon, and eventually just referred to him as Yahweh. So, I guess the rest of that paragraph is wrong since the word you used is wrong. You realize that Elohim is the anglicized version of אֱלֹהִים 'elohiym? The word I am using is the actual Hebrew, not something that someone edited so it would fit in their standard browser language. I would point you to http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/ For example, take a look at Gen 1:26: "And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth." Which in Hebrew is: וַיֹּאמֶראֱלֹהִים נַֽעֲשֶׂה אָדָם בְּצַלְמֵנוּ כִּדְמוּתֵנוּ וְיִרְדּוּ בִדְגַת הַיָּם וּבְעֹוף הַשָּׁמַיִם וּבַבְּהֵמָה וּבְכָל־הָאָרֶץ וּבְכָל־הָרֶמֶשׂ הָֽרֹמֵשׂ עַל־הָאָֽרֶץ׃ See it there? The Hebrew is 'elohiym. More on that verse can be found here: http://www.blueletterbible.org/ So given that, are you able to respond to the rest of my analysis? Isaac and Jacob as El Shaddai, who is an ancient Canaanite polytheistic deity. A couple of things about this. First, I think you are misinterpretting what "el" means in both Hebrew and other semetic languages. It is not a name like Steve or Mike, it is a title like "Mr. or Captain" I think the Caananite diety you are referring to was actually the character "el" who was the chief god of Ugarit in the 13th Century BC. However, in those usages the word "el" also refers to any spirit, ghost or diety. Philologists note that this "el" in the West Semitic branch of this language later advances into to concepts, the "el" title used in Hebrew (and Arabic) to signify a title of a diestic being whose name is being used (IE if I wanted to say "Zeus" in ancient Hebrew I would write "el Zeus" so that I would both give the name and the associated title) and elohim which refers more generally to any more supernatural being or concept. The key here is to remember that the term "el" used in earlier Semitic languages is more primitive and covers a wider variety of concepts which are later refined in more advanced Semitic languages. That "el" is used as a title can be easily shown in that the Ammonites had more than 150 names with the word "el" in them (similar to how Israel or Samuel do). But the chief god of the Ammonites was Milkom, not el. So the idea that they are appealing to a deity that is not part of their pantheon is ridiculous. What is happening is that Milkom's title is "el" in that Semitic language as well. As for Elyon, that shows a profound misunderstanding of Hebrew in general. In Semitic languages, elyon is an adjective, not a noun. Specifically it is an epithat, meaning god most high. (It also is completely unrelated to "el" linguistically, it is related to the word "ayin"). Since it isn't a noun, it is a pretty hard argument to make that it is related to a different deity. The idea that these terms relate to polytheism is actually a long discredited theory first brought forward in the mid 1800s by a German scholar. He was relying on out of date translations of the Hebrew (from, lets say, not Jewish friendly sources) and interpretations of Canaanite history that was third hand (and which we subsequently found to be misleading). It is interesting how persistent this particular legend has been. But it isn't anything more than that. Side: Monolatry
I think you should delve into what the word murder means before going any further. Specifically, what standard are you appealing to here that would make it murder? Is it your personal preference or something more objective? Okay, a mass killing in which God ordered his people to trick worshipers of another god into coming to them, then they slaughtered thousands of unarmed individuals. Call it what you want. You realize that Elohim is the anglicized version of אֱלֹהִים 'elohiym? The word I am using is the actual Hebrew, not something that someone edited so it would fit in their standard browser language. Strong's concordance on the issue has been in question. Not only does he translate it as Elohiym, which is not common, but he lists it's meanings... which is actually way too many. In Hebrew, they do not use the same word to describe judges, idols, gods, angels, etc. His interpretation may look all nice and fancy, and right in other parts, but it contains more errors than you might expect. A couple of things about this. First, I think you are misinterpretting what "el" means in both Hebrew and other semetic languages. It is not a name like Steve or Mike, it is a title like "Mr. or Captain" El means "God". El Shaddai is often translated as meaning "God Almighty". El Elyon means "God Most High". Elyon refers to the prominence (most high), El refers to God. The reason I used Elyon alone, is because El is already widely accepted as meaning "God". It comes before many titles of God. The term El was discovered in ancient texts in Ugarit, an ancient city of the Canaanites. They worshipped El, the Bible even mentions albet El (The Council of El). If you don't believe that El means "God", then just take a look at the name of his "holy land"... Israel (or Yisrael in Hebrew), has been translated a few different ways, but they share a common pattern... Triumphant with God, Who Prevails with God, He has Striven with God, or He has been saved by God. There is no dispute regarding the meaning of El. I just noticed that this covered the majority of your remaining argument. Regarding El Shaddai again, there is no denying that El Shaddai was an ancient Canaanite deity, do you disagree? Historical records have proven it. Even if you disagree with the meaning of the word El, you can't disagree that when it is put together with Shaddai, it is the name of a polytheistic god. Side: Polytheistic
Okay, a mass killing in which God ordered his people to trick worshipers of another god into coming to them, then they slaughtered thousands of unarmed individuals. Call it what you want. Yeah man, you are wrong, it isn't murder. It is way worse. Genocide, that is probably better. :) Side: Polytheistic
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Okay, a mass killing in which God ordered his people to trick worshipers of another god into coming to them, then they slaughtered thousands of unarmed individuals. Call it what you want. That is a begging the question fallacy. You assume the action is murder to show that it is murder. Strong's concordance on the issue has been in question. Not only does he translate it as Elohiym, which is not common, but he lists it's meanings... which is actually way too many. In Hebrew, they do not use the same word to describe judges, idols, gods, angels, etc. His interpretation may look all nice and fancy, and right in other parts, but it contains more errors than you might expect. This statement is patently untrue. Strong's Concordance references that it can be used with judges not that it always is. That is true as well, it is also used in reference to Moses, who at no time is being held as a deity. You have offered no support for your claim here. As such it carries no more weight than an opinion. Unless you can offer a better source of translation and Hebrew than I have offered, your point stands unsupported. El means "God" Exactly, it means the title "god" not the name of God. That is why the Ammonites have the word "el" in their names, even though their deity is Milkom. Why would they use "el" in their names if it were the name of God rather than the title, "god?" Did you notice that all of your examples refer to God's position, not his name? That none of them are translated as "Who Prevails with Yahweh" for example? Its because in the Hebrew, this is referring to a title, not a specific entity. Historical records have proven it. You've made this claim twice with no support. Please support it or withdraw the claim. Side: Monolatry
That is a begging the question fallacy. You assume the action is murder to show that it is murder. I didn't say murder, did I? What would you describe it as? You have offered no support for your claim here. As such it carries no more weight than an opinion. I'm not giving you references because you appear to be biased. Plus, I'm pulling most of this stuff from memory and books that I read. Exactly, it means the title "god" not the name of God. Then what would be the reason behind God having so many different names? Why would they use "el" in their names if it were the name of God rather than the title, "god?" Why would they give God so many different names if it's just one God? Did you notice that all of your examples refer to God's position, not his name? That none of them are translated as "Who Prevails with Yahweh" for example? Why would they do that? They're supposedly monotheistic, right? El would refer only to one god, if that were the case. Besides, the name Yahweh was supposedly only allowed to be written, not spoken during that time period. You've made this claim twice with no support. Please support it or withdraw the claim. What are you, the debate police? I'm sticking with my claim. If you don't believe me, then try to find something to prove I'm wrong. Side: Polytheistic
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I didn't say murder, did I? You said it was murder on several occasions, if you wish to retract that position, no worries. I'm not giving you references because you appear to be biased. Plus, I'm pulling most of this stuff from memory and books that I read. So your cure for an opposing point is to not offer support? That doesn't seem like good debate etiquette. Its fine to draw from memory, but can we at least agree that you haven't shown any real evidence beyond your memory for the claim? Then what would be the reason behind God having so many different names? As I've stated on numerous occasions, they aren't names, they are titles. Just as the President is also the Executive, the Commander and Chief, Leader of the free world (archaic) etc. They are referring to God in numerous ways to emphasize different characteristics or simply to not be boring in the writing. For example, why do we have multiple names for alcohol? "Adult beverage, a few, booze, brew, brewski, cold one, dead soldier, drink, giggle juice, hair of the dog, hard stuff, hooch, night cap, poison, sauce, suds?" Is it because we are referring to different aspects of the same thing? Or being creative? It should be more concerning if we only saw one word, in one context used throughout the Old Testament. That would seem to indicate that it was edited or that only one author wrote it with this complaint in mind. The fact that humans do this so often is quite well established. Odysseus has multiple different epithets in the Odyssey and Gilgamesh has over 20 in his epic. Neither of those characters is believed to represent multiple beings, the use of epithets is well understood in literary criticism. Again, I would point you back to the Ammonites. Why are they including "el" in their names if their god isn't named "el?" The answer is clearly that this is an epithet in wide usage in Western Semitic languages. What are you, the debate police? I'm sticking with my claim. If you don't believe me, then try to find something to prove I'm wrong. I already have, twice. Plus since it is your claim the onus of support it should be on you, that is basic logical structure 101. Make a claim, support it. Regardless, I've already provided support to show that your analysis relies on a flawed understanding of the development of Semetic languages and is inconsistent with both modern and classical understanding of Biblical Hebrew. Side: Monolatry
You said it was murder on several occasions, if you wish to retract that position, no worries. I meant in my recent comment. So your cure for an opposing point is to not offer support? That doesn't seem like good debate etiquette. Oh well! That doesn't mean I'm wrong. Its fine to draw from memory, but can we at least agree that you haven't shown any real evidence beyond your memory for the claim? Can we just agree that the evidence you supplied is one interpretation consisting of certain individual's conclusions? As I've stated on numerous occasions, they aren't names, they are titles. Just as the President is also the Executive, the Commander and Chief, Leader of the free world (archaic) etc. You don' have to repeat yourself, you know? They are referring to God in numerous ways to emphasize different characteristics or simply to not be boring in the writing. Sounds like a bunch of bullshit to me. For example, why do we have multiple names for alcohol? "Adult beverage, a few, booze, brew, brewski, cold one, dead soldier, drink, giggle juice, hair of the dog, hard stuff, hooch, night cap, poison, sauce, suds?" We also don't refer to beer as beer-booze, beer-brew, beer-brewski, beer-cold one, etc. Is it because we are referring to different aspects of the same thing? Or being creative? Different terms for different time periods, some of them even have origins from different countries. Same goes with the Bible. Different time periods, different terms... some, at least in my opinion... are due to different beliefs. It should be more concerning if we only saw one word, in one context used throughout the Old Testament. That would seem to indicate that it was edited or that only one author wrote it with this complaint in mind. Well, that should be the case with many books within the Bible, shouldn't it? Some use different terms for God within a single book. Ugh... whatever, I quit. If you haven't noticed, I pick different religious theories and debate from that point of view (hints, the Jesus=Venus debate we had not too long ago). I don't always thoroughly believe those theories, but do find them to be interesting interpretations. Basically, I think the Bible is widely misinterpreted and like to try out different arguments from different points to see where they end up. What I'm trying to do is compile a list of different theories, which I will definitely keep your arguments in mind, but I don't necessarily agree with them. Jerusalem and it's surrounding areas had a polytheistic past prior to the Bible, that is no secret. I honestly believe that the Bible is nothing more than a religious text. I don't think it's the word of God, it's too flawed... and way too ambiguous. It's easily opened up to a wide array of interpretations. A few ancient religions, one in Egypt if I remember correctly, became monolatry due to the person in power. He did away with the other gods for whatever reason. It was a punishable offense to worship any of them other than the one he supported. However, eventually he died and polytheism was restored, some citizens remained monolatry though. I think something similar happened with Judaism. I think their beliefs went from polytheistic to monolatry and then eventually, particularly with Christianity, arrived at monotheism. Like I've said before, I think when the Bible is read in the order that it is written, you can see the evolution of the religion. It wasn't until recently that I really started to dive into the Hebrew translations, and that opened up a whole new set of theories for me. It's a work in progress, so if I came off as a bit of an ass, don't be too offended lol. Also, if you debate me in the future, don't get the idea that I'm always fucking around... the arguing from different points of view is kind of limited to religious debates for me. Side: Polytheistic
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Oh well! That doesn't mean I'm wrong. Very true, it just means your position is irrational. IE that you hold it without appeal to rational sources. Can we just agree that the evidence you supplied is one interpretation consisting of certain individual's conclusions? Agreed, if and only if we define "individual" as the bulk of the academic field of Old Testament studies, Comparative Religious studies, Archeology, Philology and Anthropology. You don' have to repeat yourself, you know? Sometimes it seems a requirement when your debate partner makes the same incorrect statements. Sounds like a bunch of bullshit to me. I imagine it would to someone who hasn't taken the time to read serious literature on the subject. But that is the manner that both Hebrew and English writers refer to a character when they do so repeatedly. It is remarkably uncommon to find a piece of writing where the author on uses one title or reference to a person throughout the work. It becomes practically non-existent when you get past the cat in the hat level of writing because it imparts monotonity to the cadence and usually drives the writer towards a staccato cadence as well. Both of which are extremely difficult to follow. Regardless I have you several examples of this being done in ancient literature, neither of which you rebutted, so we can at least agree that it is feasible, which moots your argument here. We also don't refer to beer as beer-booze, beer-brew, beer-brewski, beer-cold one, etc. This misunderstands the construction of Hebrew language. Hebrew, unlike English is composed entirely of conceptual roots with contextual modifiers. IE Great can apply to food, temperature, majesty, amount, etc. The contextual modifier in the word is requisite in Hebrew for understanding the definition. So in Hebrew we understand great to mean majestic when it has the contextual epithet "el" (god). It is important to remember that Biblical Hebrew had no vowels and no spacing between words (that is a much later invention in philology). Sntncswldbcnstrctdlkthsn (Sentences would be constructed like this one) and that would take a bit of deciphering to figure out what was meant. That process was aided greatly by contextual epithets like "el" and others. Well, that should be the case with many books within the Bible, shouldn't it? Some use different terms for God within a single book. Yes, which is indicative of the idea that they are using these as descriptive terms, not names. Just as we see Odysseus with multiple titles or Gilgamesh. Ugh... whatever, I quit. If you haven't noticed, I pick different religious theories and debate from that point of view (hints, the Jesus=Venus debate we had not too long ago). Which is no big deal, I'm just providing the counter evidence for many theories that have become quite prolific in pop-culture. I certainly don't begrudge you putting them forward. Regardless, it has been a good discussion, thank you for engaging. A few ancient religions, one in Egypt if I remember correctly, became monolatry due to the person in power. I think you are referring to Akhenaten and his Ra transformation of Aten. That was a pretty odd scenario to be sure, and a very fascinating read. It doesn't translate well into the Hebrews though for a couple of reasons. Aside from differences in how the two are presented, the fact that aten dies out within a generation shows just how hard it is to apply a religious change of the order you are suggesting. The only way this can usually happen is the replacement of a pantheon with an outside deity and the legitimatizing of the current pantheon (IE see the greek religious decline in favor of Christianity or the buddhist replacement of hinduism). There are very few examples, historically, of one deity rising to prominence and subsuming the rest, even with examples of consolidation (as happened after the epic of Gilgamesh in UR), the deities are often simply subsumed, not mixed in the manner described here. Side: Monolatry
I imagine it would to someone who hasn't taken the time to read serious literature on the subject. Wait... so you assume that the literature you read is the correct literature? How do you know what I have and have not read? I intended for the debate to be over until I went back and read this arrogant statement. I imagine that your authority on the subject does not go beyond your readings... so how exactly do you know that you have studied the correct interpretations? I never said that my theory was correct, but you seem to have come to the conclusion that yours is... so how do you know? Because many scholars, archaeologists, etc. support your view? Well, many support mine as well. Side: Polytheistic
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Wait... so you assume that the literature you read is the correct literature? How do you know what I have and have not read? I didn't say "correct" I said "serious." IE I was contrasting referencing an analysis by someone with experience, training and peer review to an analysis done by a reporter. It is the difference between reading Shelby Foote's "The Civil War: A Narrative" and watching Ken Burn's "Civil War." One provides a far more in depth, scholarly approach to the subject than the other. I intended for the debate to be over until I went back and read this arrogant statement. As opposed to "sounds like a bunch of bs to me?" Arrogant statements breed arrogant replies right? Well, many support mine as well. Can you name any? Side: Monolatry
I was contrasting referencing an analysis by someone with experience, training and peer review to an analysis done by a reporter. A reporter? Is that what they call college professors these days? As opposed to "sounds like a bunch of bs to me?" Arrogant statements breed arrogant replies right? Oh, so that was your reason for making that response? Hmm... sounds like a bunch of BS to me. Can you name any? Robert Wright, although he has experience in journalism, he's also a scholar as well as a former professor of Philosophy at Princeton and Religion at the University of Pennsylvania. The Medieval French Rabbi Shlomo Yitzchaki or "Rashi", as he is often called, argued that Judaism had monolatry roots and didn't deny the existence of other gods. His works are one of the main focuses of Jewish study by most scholars and students today. Israel Finkelsein, an Israeli archaeologist and academic, and Neil Silberman, an archaeologist and historian, both believe that priests in Jerusalem were spreading a Yahweh-Based monolatry message, which seems to have risen around the time that the Assyrians took control of Israel. They make their case in the book The Bible Unearthed, which has been well received by both Biblical scholars and Archaeologists. Mark S. Smith, a Biblical Scholar as well as a head chairman of New York University's Department of Hebrew and Judaic studies, argues in his book "The Early History of God", that Judaism evolved from a Monolatry Yahweh-Based cult. William G. Denver, an archaeologist and former professor at the University of Arizona who specializes in Israeli history and is considered to be a distinguished professor on Near East studies, also argues that Judaism began as a Monolatry in his book "Did God Have a Wife? Archaeology and Folk Religion in Ancient Israel". That's just to name a few, but I'll also share a few quotes from a few more Biblical scholars and experts: "As absolute monotheism took over from monolatry in Israel, those who had originally been in the pantheon of the gods were demoted to the status of angels."- John Day (Biblical scholar, Professor of Old Testament studies at the University of Oxford) "The highest claim to be made for Moses is that he was, rather than a monotheist, a monolatrist. ... The attribution of fully developed monotheism to Moses is certainly going beyond the evidence." -Frank E. Eakin Jr. (Professor of Religion at University of Richmond and has been the chair of the Weinstein and Rosenthal Jewish and Christian Studies since 1988) "In the ancient Near East the existence of divine beings was universally accepted without questions. As for unicity, in Israel there is no clear and unambiguous denial of the existence of gods other than Yahweh before Deutero-Isaiah in the 6th century B.C. … The question was not whether there is only one elohim, but whether there is any elohim like Yahweh." -John L. McKenzie (the "premier" Catholic Biblical scholar of the mid-twentieth century; http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/JohnL.McKenzie)) According to the Jewish Virtual Library, " While controversial among many people, most scholars have concluded that the initial Mosaic religion for about two hundred years was a monolatrous religion." http://www.jewishvirtuallibrary.org/ Side: Polytheistic
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A reporter? Is that what they call college professors these days? Perhaps I'm confusing you with someone else, but didn't you reference "The Evolution of God" by Robert Wright? While Wright has been teaching at Princeton and the University of Pennsylvania off and on (and usually in a guest lecturer status), his primary occupation is a journalist. He has been an Editor and contributor at The New Republic, Wilson Quarterly, Time, Slate, and now the Atlantic. His columns appear in the above as well as Time, The New Yorker, New York Times Magazine, NYT, and Opinionator. His degree is in Sociobiology (a now defunct area of study replaced by Evolutionary Psychology). This gives him some academic credentials tangentially in anthropology. It doesn't give him credibility in ancient languages (no training), philology (no training), ancient religions (no training), or literary criticism (no training) all of which are the primary underpinnings of the argument being made here. Robert Wright See above. The Medieval French Rabbi Shlomo Yitzchaki or "Rashi", Rashi, who wrote at the end of the 1000s, was famous for his emphasis on a plain, straight forward interpretation of biblical texts. I haven't heard of, nor can I find any reference to him claiming that there were other gods or arguing that Judiaism had monolatry roots. Please offer some support for that. Israel Finkelsein, an Israeli archaeologist and academic, and Neil Silberman, an archaeologist and historian, both believe that priests in Jerusalem were spreading a Yahweh-Based monolatry message, This statement is true, but it isn't the whole story. What the two authors actually argue is that with the fall of Israel to the Assyrians, the people of Judah underwent some economic, political, and religious pressure. It was at that time that the priests in Jerusalem began preaching a form of monaltry. This was in order to ally themselves with King Hezekiah who was using this tactic as a way of defining his planned rebellion against the Assyrians as a struggle of Yahweh against other gods. It was not a refining of a polytheistic Israel to a monaltry culture. This is all on page 247 of "The Bible Unearthed." Mark S. Smith, I'll definitely grand Dr. Smith as a biblical scholar that holds your views, though I would argue he is outside the mainstream on this. I would point out that he has yet to author a single peer-reviewed paper on the subject, opting rather to publish a popular press book. While there is nothing wrong with that decision of course, it is indicative that he doesn't feel the evidence is strong enough to withstand the peer review process. Further, while his book is an excellent work on biblical origins and studies, his thesis relies on a tendency to late date texts that appear inconvenient to him. His dating of Deuteronomy, for example, has been heavily criticized as baseless. And while his story is interesting, and well researched, he lacks the critical time references to make it convincing. His inclusion of exterior texts, while laudatory, are often fragmentary and given far too heavy a weight to be conclusive. William G. Denver I'm assuming you mean William G. Dever here. Prof. Dever's work definitely agrees with your interpretation. I would only make one, relatively critical point. Dever isn't talking about Judaism as we understand it. His work primarily focuses on the Jewish apocrypha. IE, the same texts that gave rise to the idea of Adam and Lilith. Those works first appear during the Babylonian exile and are younger than many other textual fragments within the traditional Torah. His work on the synthesis of Babylonian religions, Canaanite religions and Judaism in these works and the corresponding sects is impressive, but it isn't main line Judaism or Christianity. This would be like criticizing Mormonism and claiming to have undermined all of Christianity. ----- The rest of your quotes are from a Wiki article on Monolatrism, which I have a hard time validating as legitimate sources as most of the quotes are only found there and at least one (Eakins) is incorrectly transcribed. The Ellipses uses in that quote cuts out about two pages of material that change the meaning of that text quite a bit. He isn't arguing that Moses is an actual monolatrist, he is arguing that another source argued that he was a monolatrist. He then goes on to disassemble that claim for about a page before returning to the only valid (in his opinion) take on the original author's point, which is that Judaism was not a fully formed faith at Moses' death. Rather, further revelation as to God's nature and will were added later (via the prophets, judges, Talmud writers, etc). None of that goes to argue that Eakin thinks that this religion evolved from polytheism or that Moses believed that there were other gods. Given that massive misquoting of the text, I have a hard time accepting anything the wiki article puts forward, and it is just further evidence that Wiki isn't a valid source for serious discussion. ------ I would like to add one further point, which goes to the article quoted on the Jewish Virtual library. The concept of a Monolatry is somewhat deceptive, imo. One could argue Billie Graham is a monolatrist because while he has only worshiped one God, he doesn't specifically go out of his way to deny other gods. Much of the argumentation used by adherents to monolatarism theory is that the Bible doesn't specifically call out all these other gods as false gods every single time it references them. The fact that it does call them false gods in places is dismissed as a later addition (usually with no textual dating to support it). A failure to specifically call out other deities as non-existent in every instance does not mean you recognize they exist. Side: Monolatry
Perhaps I'm confusing you with someone else, but didn't you reference "The Evolution of God" by Robert Wright? Yes. The author who wrote "Evolution of God", which was one of the three finalists for the Pulitzer Prize in general non-fiction in 2010. While Wright has been teaching at Princeton and the University of Pennsylvania off and on (and usually in a guest lecturer status), his primary occupation is a journalist. He has been an Editor and contributor at The New Republic, Wilson Quarterly, Time, Slate, and now the Atlantic. His columns appear in the above as well as Time, The New Yorker, New York Times Magazine, NYT, and Opinionator. You could have just supplied me with a link to his Wikipedia page. His degree is in Sociobiology (a now defunct area of study replaced by Evolutionary Psychology). This gives him some academic credentials tangentially in anthropology. It doesn't give him credibility in ancient languages (no training), philology (no training), ancient religions (no training), or literary criticism (no training) all of which are the primary underpinnings of the argument being made here. You're assuming that he had no training in those particular fields based on the fact that his Wikipedia page doesn't list them. The fact that he taught both Religion and Philosophy at two highly esteemed Universities, suggests that he does have expertise in those particular fields. Rashi, who wrote at the end of the 1000s, was famous for his emphasis on a plain, straight forward interpretation of biblical texts. I haven't heard of, nor can I find any reference to him claiming that there were other gods or arguing that Judiaism had monolatry roots. Please offer some support for that. Never mind! I think you're right. Scratch him off the list. This statement is true, but it isn't the whole story. What the two authors actually argue is that with the fall of Israel to the Assyrians, the people of Judah underwent some economic, political, and religious pressure. It was at that time that the priests in Jerusalem began preaching a form of monaltry. This was in order to ally themselves with King Hezekiah who was using this tactic as a way of defining his planned rebellion against the Assyrians as a struggle of Yahweh against other gods. It was not a refining of a polytheistic Israel to a monaltry culture. This is all on page 247 of "The Bible Unearthed." Lol are you trying to trick me into thinking that you read the book? P.247 was cited on the "Bible Unearthed" Wikipedia page. One of my reasons for adding this was to point out that there was a period where a monolatry message was being taught. Whether it was a tactic or not, it likely had an impact on Judaism. As you said, the priests were preaching this. The followers probably took it quite literally at the time. I'll definitely grand Dr. Smith as a biblical scholar that holds your views, though I would argue he is outside the mainstream on this. I would point out that he has yet to author a single peer-reviewed paper on the subject, opting rather to publish a popular press book. While there is nothing wrong with that decision of course, it is indicative that he doesn't feel the evidence is strong enough to withstand the peer review process. Robert Gnuse, a Religion Professor at Loyola University, who has a Ph.D in Old Testament, did a review on Mark Smith's book The Origins of Biblical Monotheism: Israel's Polytheistic Background and the Ugaritic Texts. "I find Smith's presentation to be brilliant, well-documented, well-organized, and very discomforting. Biblical scholars now recognize that in the pre-exilic era Asherah worship, infant sacrifice, solar veneration, and other religious practices attacked by biblical authors represented normal Israelite worship, while monotheism was a late development in the Babylonian Exile and subsequent years. Smith and others led the charge in this new scholarly perception of Israelite religion." -Robert Gnuse http://www.jhsonline.org/reviews/ Regarding his book, God in Translation: Deities in Cross-Cultural Discourse in the Biblical World : "This is an amazing book. Mark Smith takes the reader inside the intellectual universe of ancient Israel and its neighbors in a search for the possibilities of cultural translation. Learned, thoroughly researched, and written in clear and sober prose, this study defines a new level in our understanding of ancient Near Eastern theological thought." — Karel van der Toorn (University of Amsterdam) "A magisterial treatment of the development of Israelite monotheism throughout the entire biblical period. . . . The starting point for much new research." — Robert R. Wilson (Yale University) Regarding his book, The Early History of God: Yahweh and the Other Deities in Ancient Israel: "Among Biblical philologists--those who study the Hebrew Bible as an ancient, and therefore partly alien, document--Mark Smith is probably the most accomplished scholar of his generation. He has produced significant work in the areas of Hebrew grammar, Biblical exegesis, and the history of Israelite religion." "This book presents a stunning range of evidence bearing on every dimension of who the God of Israel was, and how he came to be that way." -Seth Sanders (University of Chicago) http://www.jhsonline.org/reviews/ I'm assuming you mean William G. Dever here. Isn't that what I said... or did I leave out the G? Prof. Dever's work definitely agrees with your interpretation. I would only make one, relatively critical point. Dever isn't talking about Judaism as we understand it. His work primarily focuses on the Jewish apocrypha. IE, the same texts that gave rise to the idea of Adam and Lilith. Those works first appear during the Babylonian exile and are younger than many other textual fragments within the traditional Torah. His work on the synthesis of Babylonian religions, Canaanite religions and Judaism in these works and the corresponding sects is impressive, but it isn't main line Judaism or Christianity. His books mainly deal with archaeological findings in Israel. I wouldn't say that his primary focus is Jewish Apocrypha though, but it is important to look at all the evidence including the Apocrypha, when the theory is that Jewish beliefs have changed throughout the years. He has built a reputation for researching his books very thoroughly. I have a hard time validating as legitimate sources as most of the quotes are only found there and at least one (Eakins) is incorrectly transcribed. Here, I'll attempt to validate them for you. First, John Day (Professor of Old Testament Studies, University of Oxford) "As absolute monotheism took over from monolatry in Israel, those who had originally been in the pantheon of the gods were demoted to the status of angels.": While I cannot validate his quote, other than suggesting you read his book... I can assure you that his opinions regarding ancient Judaism and OT are similar to mine, by supplying you with a link to a brief summary of his book Yahweh and the Gods and Goddesses of Canaan. http://www.amazon.com/ Second, Frank E. Eakin Jr. (Professor of Religion at University of Richmond). He has written a few books on the subject. Two of them being Yahwism and Baalism before the exile and The Reed Sea and Baalism, but I'm having trouble finding a review or even a summary of the two books. Would you mind sharing a link that supports your argument that the quote was wrong? Third, John L. McKenzie (the "premier" Catholic Biblical scholar of the mid-twentieth century): I really can't find anything too convincing. Damn! Given that massive misquoting of the text, I have a hard time accepting anything the wiki article puts forward, and it is just further evidence that Wiki isn't a valid source for serious discussion. Well, one out of three isn't so bad LOL! I would have looked for some more quotes, but the Wiki ones were the quicker choice. But I agree, Wiki isn't a good choice. I actually tell people the same thing, but I have found it to be reliable at times. It may be smart to verify the sources before posting anything from now on. I would like to add one further point, which goes to the article quoted on the Jewish Virtual library. The concept of a Monolatry is somewhat deceptive, imo. One could argue Billie Graham is a monolatrist because while he has only worshiped one God, he doesn't specifically go out of his way to deny other gods. Well, Billy Graham does deny the existence of other gods, but that's besides the point. It's not only the fact that the Bible doesn't deny the existence of other gods, but archaeological and historical evidence suggests that Jews actually believed in and possibly worshipped other gods at certain points in time. Much of the argumentation used by adherents to monolatarism theory is that the Bible doesn't specifically call out all these other gods as false gods every single time it references them. Yes, but there is historical evidence that makes that argument seem valid when compared to those verses. A failure to specifically call out other deities as non-existent in every instance does not mean you recognize they exist. That's true... and that's why the monolatry theory is isn't accepted by everyone, but it does appear that it is becoming more and more accepted amongst biblical scholars. Side: Polytheistic
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You could have just supplied me with a link to his Wikipedia page. Or his Bio, which is where I got that info from, and apparently where the Wiki author also took his cue. You're assuming that he had no training in those particular fields based on the fact that his Wikipedia page doesn't list them. The fact that he taught both Religion and Philosophy at two highly esteemed Universities, suggests that he does have expertise in those particular fields. No, I'm basing that on his statements on his website, http://robertwright.com/ And you aren't quite correct, he didn't teach either Philosophy or Religion either at Princeton or the University of Pennsylvania. He taught a senior level anthropology class and evolutionary psychology class and a undergraduate level elective seminar. And my statements concerning his background are not assumptions, they are based on the field he states he got his degree in. Arguing that someone who says they only have a physics degree does not have formal training in kinesiology is more an analysis of their statement than an unwarranted assumption. Lol are you trying to trick me into thinking that you read the book? P.247 was cited on the "Bible Unearthed" Wikipedia page. Nope, from the Google Book link, where you can read most of this argument online. Or from his video. One of my reasons for adding this was to point out that there was a period where a monolatry message was being taught. Which is a very different argument. The time period he is talking about also had extensive polytheism in Israel, heck that is one of the overarching themes of the old testament is the people's continued move towards the gods of their neighbors. But that isn't the same thing as arguing that Judaism, itself, was an evolution from polytheism. Rather, it shows that the Jewish people were not fully consistent with the religion of their forefathers. Robert Gnuse, a Religion Professor at Loyola University, who has a Ph.D in Old Testament, did a review on Mark Smith's book I didn't say Prof. Smith's argument was terrible or garbage, I said it was well outside the mainstream. Gnuse and the other quotes are pointing to a movement within Old Testament Studies in this area, but that doesn't make it mainstream. It also suffers, as I pointed out earlier from some significant challenges concerning dating of texts. Both Smith and Finklestein are relying on a relatively unreliable form of textual analysis, Contemporary Event Comparison. Smith relies heavily on the idea that we must date the Solomon/David period to much later because he believes the Sheba story to be a natural outflow of the Arabian trade which developed later. This is problematic because the story isn't necessarily a habitual trade relationship, but could be a diplomatic visit (which are described in Egypt from the Arabs and in Persia as being contemporary to earlier Davidic dating periods) or a one off incident related to a peculiar royalty. It also has suffered some criticism in that Sheba isn't necessarily an Arabian place. That is a later European assumption, but not biblical in origin. Many scholars have placed Sheba in Ethiopia or the Upper Nile, where Jewish populations go back to well before even the earliest Davidic dating lines and which would make a far more likely foreign visit for the Jewish king. Isn't that what I said... or did I leave out the G? I think you said Denver, which is what my browser suggested as the "proper" spelling when I replied. ;-) His books mainly deal with archaeological findings in Israel. I wouldn't say that his primary focus is Jewish Apocrypha though, but it is important to look at all the evidence including the Apocrypha, when the theory is that Jewish beliefs have changed throughout the years. He has built a reputation for researching his books very thoroughly. I'm not sure how you make that conclusion, his entire field of study has been to validate the apocrypha as legitimate historical documents that are contemporary Talmudic or Septuagint texts. In that field of study he has had an extremely poor showing. The bulk of his reputable scholarly work has come from his dating analysis of the Apocryphic texts and his (importantly imo) teasing out of cultural relationships via fragments of phraseology. For example, Dever was primarily responsible for pointing out that the phrasing used in the story of Lillith is almost certainly from the Israelite exile where they encountered the epic of Gilgamesh. That places that work late in the Israelite experience. He then went on to claim that similar phrasing is used in parts of Genesis as part of his goal to show that both works were composed at the same time. That work was far less successful or well received. Would you mind sharing a link that supports your argument that the quote was wrong? I spent most of this morning trying to find the article reviewing this particular quote with the link to the google book page. But I can't seem to find it now. Sorry. I'll be sure to post the links up front in the future rather than risk losing them. It's not only the fact that the Bible doesn't deny the existence of other gods, but archaeological and historical evidence suggests that Jews actually believed in and possibly worshipped other gods at certain points in time. And this, I think, is the underlying problem with the concept. I could have told you that from a quick overview of the OT. Of course Jews did that, it mentions it repeatedly throughout the Bible. But that is a different argument than the monolatry argument, which states that the Jews evolved a monotheistic faith incrementally from a polytheistic faith relatively late in their history. That latter argument is incredibly difficult to support because, in essence, it has to show a continuous link from pre-existent local gods towards the concept of Yahweh. The only manner of it doing so really, is to show that these concepts pre-existed monotheism and continued with gradual change to the current understanding of Judiaism. The evidence for that claim just isn't there, the idea that because I say "God" and Saxon said "god" when talking about Thor means that they are the same thing is pretty hard to really swallow. It is up there with the idea that Zeus and Odin are the same deity because you can translate the oral pronunciation of those names over different cultures into something that sounds similar. Seven degrees of separation of deities as it were. Yes, but there is historical evidence that makes that argument seem valid when compared to those verses. I think you are overstating the case slightly. The primary discussion revolves around interpretations of the language (which I think the monolatry side is at a pretty severe disadvantage on) and the relatively thin date analysis described. It relies on a need for a complex twisting of cultural evolution that apparently didnt' occur anywhere else, but for the Jews. Rather, the far more simple and logical explanation of monotheism with neighboring religious pressures seems a far more likely explanation with a far better fit for the evidence. Side: Monolatry
And you aren't quite correct, he didn't teach either Philosophy or Religion either at Princeton or the University of Pennsylvania. I got my information from the about the author section in my copy of The Evolution of God, but let me provide you with a quote from his website: "Wright has taught philosophy at Princeton and religion at the University of Pennsylvania." How can you argue with that? It says it right on his website! He taught a senior level anthropology class and evolutionary psychology class and a undergraduate level elective seminar. I'm not entirely sure where you found those. The closest information I could find to that was, once again, the somewhat unreliable Wikipedia... which said that he studied sociobiology and evolutionary psychology when he was a student at Princeton University. As for his teaching, Wikipedia says "In early 2000, Wright began teaching at Princeton University and the University of Pennsylvania, teaching a graduate seminar called "Religion and Human Nature" and an undergraduate course called "The Evolution of Religion." Any other site just says that he taught those topics at those universities, but doesn't go into detail. And my statements concerning his background are not assumptions, they are based on the field he states he got his degree in. Right, he got his degree in those fields... but so what? Of course, having a religion degree from a University as highly esteemed as Princeton would be an impressive thing to add to his resume, and would increase his reliability, so to speak... but some of the most brilliant minds to ever exist didn't even attend college. If you're interested in a subject and put in the time and effort to further increase your knowledge in that field, then you can become an expert. Like I said, his book Evolution of God was a finalist for the Pulitzer Prize. It was supported by many Biblical scholars/experts. But that isn't the same thing as arguing that Judaism, itself, was an evolution from polytheism. Rather, it shows that the Jewish people were not fully consistent with the religion of their forefathers. One of the arguments that they make is not only is the Bible historically inaccurate, but the passages in the Bible were written by many different people from many different periods of time. I'm actually interested in reading the book so that I can get a better idea of where they stand, but it seems to me, based off of reviews and such, that they think the polytheistic and monolatry views had an impact on Old Testament. Maybe they don't directly say "look at this passage! It's clearly monolatry!", but they seem to be suggesting it based off of some of their findings. I don't know man! I'll have to read the book and get back to ya! Gnuse and the other quotes are pointing to a movement within Old Testament Studies in this area, but that doesn't make it mainstream. I never said it was. It also suffers, as I pointed out earlier from some significant challenges concerning dating of texts. Both Smith and Finklestein are relying on a relatively unreliable form of textual analysis, Contemporary Event Comparison. How did you come to that conclusion? Smith relies heavily on the idea that we must date the Solomon/David period to much later because he believes the Sheba story to be a natural outflow of the Arabian trade which developed later I'm so tired LOL! I can barely hold my eyes open, but I've already typed so much of this argument, I'd hate to quit now... so if my arguments aren't as detailed as they were before, sorry. Anyways, would you mind providing a link or maybe a quote? I'm just not sure how you came to that conclusion. This is problematic because the story isn't necessarily a habitual trade relationship, but could be a diplomatic visit (which are described in Egypt from the Arabs and in Persia as being contemporary to earlier Davidic dating periods) or a one off incident related to a peculiar royalty. Well, I guess the keywords there are "could be". I think you said Denver, which is what my browser suggested as the "proper" spelling when I replied. ;-) Oh... you're right. I did say "Denver" LOL! I'm not sure how you make that conclusion, his entire field of study has been to validate the apocrypha as legitimate historical documents that are contemporary Talmudic or Septuagint texts. Link please! For example, Dever was primarily responsible for pointing out that the phrasing used in the story of Lillith is almost certainly from the Israelite exile where they encountered the epic of Gilgamesh. That places that work late in the Israelite experience. He then went on to claim that similar phrasing is used in parts of Genesis as part of his goal to show that both works were composed at the same time. That work was far less successful or well received. Do you have some sort of bias against Dever? I can't find many negative reviews on his work, particularly from scholars. If you have a link you can give me, I'd appreciate it. And this, I think, is the underlying problem with the concept. I could have told you that from a quick overview of the OT. Of course Jews did that, it mentions it repeatedly throughout the Bible. I meant Jew in the religious sense. But that is a different argument than the monolatry argument, which states that the Jews evolved a monotheistic faith incrementally from a polytheistic faith relatively late in their history. I think the arguments go together just fine. Alright man, I'm going to call it quits for now. I'll come back to some of your arguments once I can concentrate better (so tired!). Go ahead and respond if I don't get back to them first and I'll try to fit them in with my next argument. Sorry dude! By the way, just so I get a better idea of where you stand... are you religious? Side: Polytheistic
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How can you argue with that? It says it right on his website! Because they are very generic phrases that don't match the classes he actually taught. I could say I taught "physics" because I've taught people how to call for artillery. That wouldn't be really that accurate. Likewise, teaching a class about anthropology that covers cultural relationships to religious concepts isn't really teaching religion, it is teaching anthropology. Teaching a class about how various cultures react to scientific discoveries is not the same thing as teaching about those scientific discoveries themselves. There is some overlap, but they are not synonymous. Like I said, his book Evolution of God was a finalist for the Pulitzer Prize. It was supported by many Biblical scholars/experts. The Pulitzer is a prize for good writing, not for academic research or achievement. And it was supported by those scholars as an interesting read, not as an academic breakthrough. One of the arguments that they make is not only is the Bible historically inaccurate, but the passages in the Bible were written by many different people from many different periods of time. Which is why the question of dating is so critical. There doesn't really seem to be much evidence that the sections that could be interpreted as monolatry or the incidents of Israelites worshiping foreign gods are older than the monotheistic sections. Rather the opposite. The events that refer to the worship of other gods tend to be supported (by textual dating, contemporary worship and cult relationships) as developing later than the earlier Jewish monotheism. When put into a proper timeline, these seem to be more outside influences of other, later religions rather than the conglomeration of older faiths as is argued here. How did you come to that conclusion? From a brief perusal of his argument and the counter arguments offered on a few of the academic reviews. The main source was a published review of the book: http://www.jstor.org/discover/10.2307/ I also reviewed analysis of his work from http://www.denverseminary.edu/article/ and http://www.bookreviews.org/pdf/30103382.pdf Both of which reference a use of relatively thin contemporary event analysis as the primary source for the new dating scheme he proposes. Well, I guess the keywords there are "could be". Which would make it what we call in economics a "just so story." Those are fun, but not convincing. Unless he has some support that this is a habitual relationship and it is from Arabia then it is only a fun piece of conjecture, not a historical analysis useful in dating. Link please! Sure, Prof. Dever has published four major works. One was about archeological finds: Dever, William G. (2012), The Lives of Ordinary People in Ancient Israel: Where Archaeology and the Bible Intersect. This work is notable as it is after his retirement. His other three works are all related to the reconciliation of the Apocrypha to Biblical texts and archeological evidence. Dever, William G. (2001), What Did the Biblical Writers Know and When Did They Know It? What Archaeology Can Tell Us about the Reality of Ancient Israel. In which Prof. Devers spends most of the book arguing that the biblical writers were intentionally censoring out the Apocrypha and that archeological evidence supports its more widely spread acceptance. Dever, William G. (2003), Who Were the Early Israelites and Where Did They Come from? This book argues that the early Israelites were really a conglomeration of other cultures and this can be shown via some synthesis of pottery evidence and the concept that the Apocrypha, which he briefly defends, represent a blending of cultures. Dever, William G. (2005), Did God Have a Wife?: Archaeology and Folk Religion in Ancient Israel. This book is pure Apocrypha. Aside from some brief references to the OT, it primarily relies on the other work for source material concerning "early" Yahweh. The backbone of his thesis here is that Asherism survived in Jewish mysticism from earlier periods rather than develops later. His argument is that the mystic texts should be dated much earlier to support this.
Do you have some sort of bias against Dever? Personally? Not at all. I find his arguments unconvincing, as do many. I don't see any reason to doubt the dating analysis more widely accepted of Deuteronomy or the archeological evidence surrounding the cultural shifts accompanying the first finds of iron age Israelites. Dismissing the influx of a new culture into Caanan during the Iron Age requires de-prioritizing a significant amount of evidence and I don't see his warrant for that as sufficient. The reviews of his work as more popular read than academic and weak, especially in dating can be found here: http://www.jhsonline.org/reviews/ I meant Jew in the religious sense. And that generally isn't supportable. The arguments presented seem to be more "this happened, therefore it was accepted" when we have a contemporary source arguing "this happened, it wasn't accepted" right there. These interpretations (to steal an analytic tool of Dever's) seem to fall more into the "reject the Bible if at all possible and accept interpretations that minimize it if available." The question between Jews as an ethnic group and Judaism as a religion is being conflated (in my opinion) here. Because the ethnic group of people called Jews at various times also worshiped other deities does not mean that the religion of Judaism was at one time polytheistic. Many Jews today are secular, we shouldn't then argue that Judaism is therefore a quasi-secular religion. Alright man, I'm going to call it quits for now. I'll come back to some of your arguments once I can concentrate better (so tired!). No problem of course, get some rest! By the way, just so I get a better idea of where you stand... are you religious? I am religious yes. Side: Monolatry
Because they are very generic phrases that don't match the classes he actually taught. I could say I taught "physics" because I've taught people how to call for artillery. That wouldn't be really that accurate. Likewise, teaching a class about anthropology that covers cultural relationships to religious concepts isn't really teaching religion, it is teaching anthropology. But he didn't teach those subjects... well, maybe he did... but he also taught religion and philosophy, as well as psychology. "Religion and Human Nature" and an undergraduate course called "The Evolution of Religion." Can you provide me with a link to where you found that information? The Pulitzer is a prize for good writing, not for academic research or achievement. And it was supported by those scholars as an interesting read, not as an academic breakthrough. The Pulitzer Prize isn't given specifically for good writing. Maybe when it comes to poetry or fiction, but non-fiction...? The judges come from a wide range of backgrounds and many of them include historians. They're all experts in their particular fields. Robert Wright's book would have been reviewed by historians as well as other experts, before being determined as a finalist for the Pulitzer Prize. The events that refer to the worship of other gods tend to be supported (by textual dating, contemporary worship and cult relationships) as developing later than the earlier Jewish monotheism. Historically, Polytheism and Monolatry came before Monotheism. I'm not sure if you believe that, since you are religious... but that's where the evidence points. We also know that the Bible isn't in the order that it was originally written. It's in the earlier Biblical texts that the Bible is sometimes interpreted as monolatry or polytheistic. As the Bible continues, and time progresses (so to speak), we see a change in the tone... until eventually, a clear monotheistic message takes over. Those are fun, but not convincing. Only if you aren't convinced. It's safe to assume that as someone who is religious, you are going into those readings with a fair amount of bias, correct? I don't mean to insult you, but the Bible is one of the key books that many people, including myself, find unconvincing. How could you be so easily convinced (I'm assuming you're Christian, sorry if I'm wrong) by the Bible but so easily unconvinced by a Biblical scholar? Sure, Prof. Dever has published four major works. I didn't see a link in there lol. Personally? Not at all. I find his arguments unconvincing, as do many. Who are the "many"? That's not a very strong argument, considering many also agree with his work. Side: Polytheistic
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But he didn't teach those subjects... well, maybe he did... but he also taught religion and philosophy, as well as psychology. First, I should point out that the fact that it is so difficult to find a list of actual classes taught by Mr. Wright indicates, imo, that this is a side show for him and that my original argument that he is really a journalist who is occasionally leading a lecture at a university is accurate. That explicitly is the case for Princeton anyway, where Wright only conducted a series of one time seminars, usually in a panel as part of a visiting fellow program. http://uchv.princeton.edu/about/ I don't see any evidence anywhere of him teaching basic religion, philosophy or psychology classes. Wiki offers the two classes you reference from my quote, but I can't find any reference to either class taught either at University of Pennsylvania or and Princeton. Rather, UPenn describes Mr. Wright as a "visiting fellow" rather than a professor and only teaches one class. http://www.ppc.sas.upenn.edu/hlbios.htm I can't find any record of him teaching a general class of the type you describe or of being a full time or research professor at any university. The Pulitzer Prize isn't given specifically for good writing. Maybe when it comes to poetry or fiction, but non-fiction Actually not really, the Pulitzer doesn't have any real requirements for factual accuracy, depth of argument or consistency. Rather the criteria revolve around the subjects readability, use of journalistic (notice that it doesn't mention other scientific tools) tools, and service to the public. http://www.pulitzer.org/ The board that presided over Mr. Wrights finalist section had only 1 historian (who specializes in modern American history, with no linguistics or near east experience) and one social scientist (who specializes in race theory in politics) out of an 18 member board. It is pretty fair to say that whatever evaluation this book had on its merits for the Pulitzer was an evaluation done by amateurs in the field. http://www.pulitzer.org/board/2010 Historically, Polytheism and Monolatry came before Monotheism. I partially agree. Most historians agree that animism was the earliest form of religious belief, followed by polytheism, then monotheism. Monolatry is relatively rare (there are only two examples historically if we include this as one, I don't, both of which are only short term transitions to monotheism). That is consistent with the traditional and academic mainstream reading of the Old Testament as well. The OT refers to plenty of pre-existing polytheist cultures before Abram's conversion to Abraham. We also know that the Bible isn't in the order that it was originally written. And this is where I think you make the mistake. You've followed a few scholars down a primrose path of extremely tenuous and non-accepted dating. The sections you refer to throughout this argument suffer from two critical problems: 1) They are not monolatry unless you use non-standard uses of Hebrew or insist that Judaism was completely uniform in practice for all periods (IE that there were no local differences, cults or groups), which would be counter to the Old Testament and most anthropological theory. 2) Even if we were to overcome one, the dating itself of these texts is extremely problematic. Textual fragments, and other linguistic techniques place these documents much earlier than the storyline for monolatry allows (the monotheistic conversion during the reign of Hezekiah). So as a last resort, some scholars have resorted to using a "parallel" set of texts they believe are more reliable and which they maintain were held as genuine in competition to the more mainstream texts. That seems unlikely given what we know about cultural diffusion and the competition of ideas. It seems odd that we would dismiss a source that has multiple different, contemporary examples for versions like the Qom docs, that exist only as fragments in a group that clearly existed on the margins of society. It would be like reviewing the politics of today and dismissing Fox, CNN and even MSNBC and all their reposting by bloggers and rather to select Alex Jones as more reliable. Only if you aren't convinced. I meant unconvincing in the academic sense. Just so stories are very common place in all kinds of fields, economics, physics, etc. By definition they aren't evidence or good argumentation, they are simply a claim that "it could have happened this way." They are much more akin to a hypothesis than a theory. In most fields, we evaluate these hypothesis by their explanatory power, their accordance with existing evidence and theory and their plausibility. The idea that the Israelites became monotheists via a process of conglomeration and political intrigue fails these tests. Explanatory Power: It fails to explain the evidence for dramatic architectural changes, and decreases in pottery sophistication around the time the Israelites appear in the record. It fails to explain the contemporary references to Hebrews and semites in neighboring cultures pre-Israelite occupation of Canaan. Existing Evidence and Theory: A dramatic shift in cultural identity is relatively unprecedented. There are virtually no examples of a non-invasion scenario where a group of people decide to alter their ethnic identity radically and in a wide spread manner. For the very few cases we have of sub-sets of people claiming a different ethnic origin these always include a call back to a shared identity or existing group of people from which they claim descent. It never includes the spontaneous invention of a group and background. Spontaneous monolatry is likewise exceptional in anthropological records. The only other case of monolatry is the Egyptian case in which it was forced upon a people by an absolute ruler. For anthropologists and religious historians, the concept of a group of people simply adopting one deity in an acknowledged pantheon is very questionable since internal struggles would have led to family or clan worship of parallel deities as part of the competition. Take Greece for example. Most city-states or regions had a specific deity within the pantheon that they worshiped and which was the city's patron. But even then there were no examples of city states without sizable cults for other deities that were tied to political opposition, cultural opposition or sometimes just random groups (the cult of Dionysus is a good example). Plausibility: These theories all lack some key aspects of plausibility, most of which I referenced above. They require a class based view of the world where the Israelites represent a sub-class of Canaanites that rebel, but that type of class awareness was not present in the near east at this period. The represent a consciousness of group identity that somehow doesn't relate to any external or separate culture, but rather creates that culture. It requires a spontaneous, and widespread invention of an exodus myth that makes the Israelites the descendents of slaves (an odd invention to make yourself the second lowest caste of society) with absolutely no competing ethnic identity or origin stories. It also requires a parallel, and similarly named group of people to exist in Egypt to explain the archeological evidence, who seem to vanish into the Sinai with no further trace. Finally, it requires that a remarkable set of linguistic errors on the part of scribes to use terms in non-standard Hebrew ways that differ from all other semite linguistic branches in order to interpret them as meaning a reference to an external deity ("God's Wife" is the best example of this). To summarize, when I said unconvincing I didn't mean from a personal point of view, I meant for a hypothesis analysis point of view. you are going into those readings with a fair amount of bias, correct? Almost certainly, but no more so than someone who finds the Bible unconvincing right? I didn't see a link in there lol. http://www.ranker.com/list/ Side: Monolatry
First, I should point out that the fact that it is so difficult to find a list of actual classes taught by Mr. Wright indicates, imo, that this is a side show for him and that my original argument that he is really a journalist who is occasionally leading a lecture at a university is accurate. You still haven't provided any sort of evidence that he taught anthropology and biology (it was something along those lines, I forget the actual courses you named though). That explicitly is the case for Princeton anyway, where Wright only conducted a series of one time seminars, usually in a panel as part of a visiting fellow program. Yes... but that is more experience than none, which is what it seems like you're implying. He didn't give these seminars at just some community college, he was at Princeton and Pennsylvania. He's labeled as a "visiting scholar" in the web page you provided, and he mentions working with different religious scholars and professors, as well as being a research assistant of a religious studies graduate from one those colleges. The amount of research that went into his book is impressive and whether he is a journalist or not, shouldn't discredit the argument he put forth. Rather, UPenn describes Mr. Wright as a "visiting fellow" rather than a professor and only teaches one class. UPenn describes him as a "visiting scholar", which is a much more impressive title than "fellow" lol. I can't find any record of him teaching a general class of the type you describe or of being a full time or research professor at any university. "Wright is a visiting lecturer in Princeton University’s religion department and has taught in the psychology department at Penn." http://www.evolutionofgod.net/aboutauthor "Wright has taught philosophy at Princeton and religion at the University of Pennsylvania" http://robertwright.com/about/ LOL! It looks like someone can't keep their facts straight. I can't figure out which school he taught what at! Anyways, I'm pretty sure he wasn't a full-time religion professor, but the guy knows his stuff... it's hard to deny that. Here's a little bit of information I thought was interesting, by the way: " In 2009 Wright was named by Foreign Policy magazine as one of the top 100 global thinkers." Come on... that's got to be a little bit impressive, right? Actually not really, the Pulitzer doesn't have any real requirements for factual accuracy, depth of argument or consistency. Rather the criteria revolve around the subjects readability, use of journalistic (notice that it doesn't mention other scientific tools) tools, and service to the public. All of that had to do with the journalism category. Isn't there different criteria for books? The board that presided over Mr. Wrights finalist section had only 1 historian (who specializes in modern American history, with no linguistics or near east experience) and one social scientist (who specializes in race theory in politics) out of an 18 member board. It is pretty fair to say that whatever evaluation this book had on its merits for the Pulitzer was an evaluation done by amateurs in the field. There were three jury members for the category of General Nonfiction: http://www.pulitzer.org/jurors/2010-General-Nonfiction However, it's true... they don't seem to be very experienced in religious studies. Monolatry is relatively rare (there are only two examples historically if we include this as one, I don't, both of which are only short term transitions to monotheism). Well, that's how monolatry is. It's usually a transition phase. That's what I've been arguing regarding Judaism! LOL And this is where I think you make the mistake. You've followed a few scholars down a primrose path of extremely tenuous and non-accepted dating. The sections you refer to throughout this argument suffer from two critical problem How is that a mistake? It's widely accepted among most Biblical scholars that the Bible is not in the order that it was originally written... it's also widely accepted that the texts from the Bible (specifically New Testament) weren't written by the disciples/authors themselves. In most fields, we evaluate these hypothesis by their explanatory power, their accordance with existing evidence and theory and their plausibility. The how can your argument be FOR the reliability of the Bible? It requires a spontaneous, and widespread invention of an exodus myth that makes the Israelites the descendents of slaves (an odd invention to make yourself the second lowest caste of society) with absolutely no competing ethnic identity or origin stories. Most Biblical scholars and archaeologists believe that the Book of Exodus IS a myth. http://www.pbs.org/wgbh/nova/ancient/moses-exodus.html http://www.nytimes.com/2007/04/03/world/ Almost certainly, but no more so than someone who finds the Bible unconvincing right? Well, I wasn't unconvinced my entire life. I grew up a Christian. So... sure, I have some bias... but it's not too difficult for me to see it from the other side's perspective. The Dever link wasn't what I was looking for. I wanted to know how you determined that his books deal mainly with the Apocrypha. Side: Polytheistic
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You still haven't provided any sort of evidence that he taught anthropology and biology (it was something along those lines, I forget the actual courses you named though). I think it might be beneficial to re-hash where we are in this to understand the claims. You put forward Mr. Wright's book as an example of research towards the Israelite faith moving from polytheism to monolatry to monotheism. I countered that by arguing that Mr. Wright's work had some problems and that he was not an expert in the field, but rather a journalist. You rebutted that he was a college professor in relevant areas. I pointed out that the only classes I could find him teaching were very specialized and not related to the fields necessary for that work. Continuing to dig into the two classes referenced above I cannot find any real evidence that he is a professor at all beyond a visiting fellow who has taught a seminar or two at Princeton and a single undergrad class at UPenn. So in the end we are left with the idea that we can at least say he is primarily a journalist (not a researcher) and it seems probable that he is entirely a journalist that has guest lectured. Yes... but that is more experience than none, which is what it seems like you're implying...He's labeled as a "visiting scholar" in the web page you provided...The amount of research that went into his book is impressive and whether he is a journalist or not, shouldn't discredit the argument he put forth. I don't see any reason to give that too much credit though. I've guest lectured at the University of Washington and George Mason, those were more a matter of convenience for the universities than a recognition that I was a pioneer or in depth researcher in a field. Universities often bestow honorary degrees or invite people to lecture because they are popular or interesting, not necessarily because their work is recognized as conclusive or even well done. Not that I'm knocking Mr. Wright's achievement, he is a good writer and the fact that they sought him out says a good deal to his credit. But it doesn't offer the kind of academic support for his research that I think was being implied earlier. And I will agree with you that his being a journalist (or heck even if he were a homeless person) that position does not discredit his argument necessarily. I was only clarifying his credentials to prevent an appeal to authority. I offered other critiques of his argument earlier in this thread that were more germane to the actual premises. UPenn describes him as a "visiting scholar", which is a much more impressive title than "fellow" lol. Maybe ;-) Fellow implies a habitual relationship or inclusion in a group. Scholar is often bandied about by universities. Heck they called us all scholars when I was in undergrad and I remember quite a few people who certainly weren't adding prestige to that title. Either way, I think we can agree it doesn't appear that he is a professor there either teaching or research wise. But that he is certainly well thought of enough to earn himself two guest invitations to lecture from good universities. LOL! It looks like someone can't keep their facts straight. I can't figure out which school he taught what at! Anyways, I'm pretty sure he wasn't a full-time religion professor, but the guy knows his stuff... it's hard to deny that. Here's a little bit of information I thought was interesting, by the way: " In 2009 Wright was named by Foreign Policy magazine as one of the top 100 global thinkers." Come on... that's got to be a little bit impressive, right? Funny that it changes from site to site. I think we agree more or less. Mr. Wright is not a full time professor, but is prestigious enough to have earned invitations from good schools. Bottom line: He doesn't warrant an appeal to authority (ie he is an expert in the field so your arguments are meaningless type of thing), but his arguments do warrant responses since they are researched and well written. Totally agree there. All of that had to do with the journalism category. Isn't there different criteria for books? The Journalism category includes books as well. Part of the problem is that the non-fiction area isn't a formal category, it is one that kind of comes and goes when the judges want one. The criteria for a Pulitzer are really just that enough people nominate you for one. The guidelines I linked were things that have been common to past winners. Sufficed to say the Pulitzer is more of a writing prize than an academic research prize. There were three jury members for the category of General Nonfiction: Excellent find, I totally missed that there were sub-judging panels. So for this panel there were three judges. 2 were journalists (one has some experience in modern Israel, though I'm not sure he speaks Hebrew, certainly not Biblical Hebrew. The other is a science writer specializing in genetics) the other was a historian who focused on Modern Germany, especially political and military changes. I wouldn't necessarily call that a peer-review quality panel of experts on the underlying argument. Well, that's how monolatry is. It's usually a transition phase. That's what I've been arguing regarding Judaism! LOL But that isn't really the case with Judaism. The only other case of Monolatry on record only lasts about 10 years. The Jewish experience (if we buy that timeline) is something more like 500-750 years. That is a massive difference in time scale that doesn't really comport with a general cultural shift in understanding or a cultural meme. I would argue the lack of comparable is a good argument against it as well. We have tons of examples of polytheism, a few examples of monotheism, but no examples (outside of one) of monolatry. The fact that it is so rare in so many different observations indicates to me that more conventional explanations are more likely correct. How is that a mistake? It's widely accepted among most Biblical scholars that the Bible is not in the order that it was originally written... it's also widely accepted that the texts from the Bible (specifically New Testament) weren't written by the disciples/authors themselves. Two separate arguments here. First, you are arguing that the OT is not fully chronological, that is correct and not really an issues (Christians and Jews have said the same thing for generations), for example Job, which occurs later in the book, takes place much earlier, contemporary with Abraham. Because there are two levels of organizations (history/prophetic/poetry then chronological) does not mean that pointing out that the book of Song of Solomon occurs following discussions of his descendents is some kind of revelation. What I think you are confusing is that level of scholarly consensus with a much more controversial and not accepted idea that the book of Deuteronomy is written well after the books of Judges and Kings. That type of reorganization has virtually no support in the mainstream field. Second argument, the NT. Again, there are two different arguments nested as one here. The first, which is well accepted is that the Gospels underwent progressive elaboration in the first century of their existence (from around 40AD to 120AD), that is widely accepted and accurate. The fact that you can date most of the core chronology and sections of each gospel back to around 40-60AD is also widely accepted). But again, relatively small linguistic changes to the text and re-writes to conform to Greek and Latin are not the same thing as the more controversial (and virtually universally dismissed) idea that the Gospels were written, in their entirety, more than 150 years after the events. Most Biblical scholars and archaeologists believe that the Book of Exodus IS a myth. Same argument here as above. You are confusing two levels of criticism as if they are the same thing. It is largely accepted that the Exodus story contains elements that were likely added later, especially direct conversations between individuals (Joshua/Moses being a good example of this). But that does not mean that the whole story is a myth. Very few scholars outside of the fringe hold that the entire Exodus did not happen. PBS did a pretty good job of cutting together various theories to appear as one. In fact, most scholars hold that there was likely a single, large scale exodus that occurred as part of social upheaval in Egypt or that this story represents a longer trend of emigration that occurred over a generation. There are some basic facts that archeology and virtually all Biblical scholars agree upon. 1)Semites, almost certainly Hebrews existed in Egypt in large numbers. We have strong evidence of several Semite cultures in Egypt pre-Exodus time period. Not only the Hyksos, but other groups with undeniably Hebrew names reside in store cities throughout NE Egypt. Names like Yakubher which contains the Hebrew Jacob (though the idea that this is the Jacob is far less accepted) and a transliteration of the phrase "el." Further references to the Semites in Egypt called the "Abiru" or sometimes "habiru." Both are attempts to anglicize the same cuniform linguistic word that is pronounced "habrew." This word represents a group of semites used primarily as manual labor in Egypt and are referenced on several surviving glyph mosaics. http://www.israel-a-history-of.com/ 2)Those Semites left or were expelled following internal unrest. Ipwur Papyrus, which discusses internal unrest and a series of plagues on the land (though the exact timing of those is uncertain, they might well be from a far earlier time). The Papyrus does, however, discuss internal unrest and the subjugation of semites within Egypt. There is pretty strong consensus that this subjugation took the form of a change in dynasty and that the Pharaohs that had built the storehouse cities originally were replaced with a new lineage that was noted for its dislike of outsiders. http://www.archive.org/stream/ It is likely that this change in position triggered a gradual emigration or possibly a large scale expulsion within Egypt. We know the Egyptians expelled large numbers of Hyksos during this period as well as other semitic groups, http://www.bibleandscience.com/ 3)The Egyptians recognize an ethnic shift in Canaan following this expelling. Sashu of yhwh, a phrase meaning "the wanderers of Yahweh" is an interesting term in that it is far more specific than when Egyptians refer to other nomadic groups in Canaan who they label the generic "Shasu." This indicates two things. We can place the followers of Yahweh to this period, though they are not mentioned in any of the earlier conquest documentation (meaning they are new, one way or another) and that the Egyptians were familiar enough with the concept of Yahweh for that phrase to have meaning. This is not the case with other local dieties during this period and speaks to a closer relationship or familiarity with Hebrew religion. http://www.breakingchristiannews.com/ Not too long after that, the Egyptians conduct yet another campaign in the area and note that they have obliterated an army of Israelites. The linguistics indicate they are not referring to a people of the region or a kingdom, but a group of people. This is a dramatic change in names from the groups attacked in the same area two hundred years earlier. Further, their being named indicates they were not a dominant group rather than just regional nomads. http://www.allaboutarchaeology.org/ The fact that the Egyptians reference these groups as different indicates a far greater distinction than the small differences indicated in some of the "cultural evolution" hypotheses. The Egyptians would probably not have noted a slave revolt or other type of class change as warranting the use of another name. The Amarna Letters are a series of clay tablets discovered that document a Canannite queen's request for assistance from the invading "Abiru" (mentioned earlier). She pleads for the Egyptian king (of whom she was a client state) to come rescue her, to no effect. The place names and style of warfare are remarkably similar to those described by the Joshua story. http://www.israel-a-history-of.com/ 4)Archeological sites undergo a large scale change around this time as well. There are two major changes that are undertaken around this time period. First, is a change in architecture. Styles of buildings more closely resemble NE egyptian wall styles and home designs (with sleeping quarters on the roof and walled courtyards, for example). The second is the decrease in pottery production and quality that occurs. This is certainly indicative of a population change in the region that went from more skilled peoples to less skilled peoples. The quality change could fit the pastoral revolt theory, however the quantity change is more indicative of a nomadic group settling in the area. A group whose dietary (especially cooking and serving style), storage and production habits were developed with carrying rather than sedentary life in mind. This is also a pattern seen quite frequently in other excavations of nomadic groups surpassing existing sedentary populations, the visigoths in northern africa and the Arabs in southern Iraq are notable parallels here. Well, I wasn't unconvinced my entire life. I grew up a Christian. So... sure, I have some bias... but it's not too difficult for me to see it from the other side's perspective. The Dever link wasn't what I was looking for. I wanted to know how you determined that his books deal mainly with the Apocrypha. Interesting, I grew up secular and later converted, so we appear to be more or less mirror images in that respect. The Dever link offered discusses the nature of the works published right? (Did I link the right page?) It is from those discussions that the nature of his work is pretty clear. Side: Monolatry
So in the end we are left with the idea that we can at least say he is primarily a journalist (not a researcher) and it seems probable that he is entirely a journalist that has guest lectured. Yeah, there's no denying that. He's definitely a journalist. I don't see any reason to give that too much credit though. I've guest lectured at the University of Washington and George Mason, those were more a matter of convenience for the universities than a recognition that I was a pioneer or in depth researcher in a field. Well, I found this: "He spent nearly 10 years researching and writing The Evolution of God, including a year as a visiting fellow at Princeton, where he used the time to get up to speed on the Hebrew Bible." http://paw.princeton.edu/issues/2009/09/ So, that's something. It was an article by Princeton, so that should give us a little bit of a better idea of what his role was there. But that isn't really the case with Judaism. The only other case of Monolatry on record only lasts about 10 years. But that's why the argument is controversial, right? Everyone thinks that Judaism never went through a polytheistic and monolatry phase, but there is evidence to support that it did. But at the same time, there is also evidence that contradicts that theory. That's why it deserves more attention. But again, relatively small linguistic changes to the text and re-writes to conform to Greek and Latin are not the same thing as the more controversial (and virtually universally dismissed) idea that the Gospels were written, in their entirety, more than 150 years after the events. The letters of Paul are the oldest text in Christianity, despite the fact that the gospels come first in the Bible. The oldest of those letters is believed to be 1 Thessalonians, which is dated around 50 C.E. Paul lived from 4-64 C.E. The Gospels were written about 20-30 years after Paul, which puts them somewhere between 80 and 95 C.E., except for Mark... which was probably written in 70C.E. So, your dates "40 C.E.- 120 C.E." are a little bit off from what is accepted amongst most Scholars. Very few scholars outside of the fringe hold that the entire Exodus did not happen. PBS did a pretty good job of cutting together various theories to appear as one. You mean in the interview they had with one person? lol In fact, most scholars hold that there was likely a single, large scale exodus that occurred as part of social upheaval in Egypt or that this story represents a longer trend of emigration that occurred over a generation. I don't know of many non-religious scholars who believe that there was a "large scale" Exodus. Most believe there is a possibility that a small scale Exodus took place, if anything. There is NO Egyptian archaeological record that mentions Moses. On top of that, there is no Egyptian record of a slave rebellion and there is none mentioning an Exodus. While this does not disprove the story of Moses, it is a bit of a surprise considering how big of a deal those events would have been. While I'm on the topic of Moses (maybe you can tell that I've finally gotten some sleep LOL!), you need to keep in mind that Moses supposedly lived during a time when most people were polytheistic and he grew up in Egypt, a place that had a major polytheistic culture. It becomes difficult to believe that not only would Moses be monotheistic, but the Hebrew people before him as well. This is where a monolatry theory comes into play. It's possible that Moses and the Hebrew people believed in multiple Gods and Yahweh became their national God, or protector God. This would make sense that a slave rebellion would also rebel against the common belief system. Another thing I'd like to mention, which I think you may have brought up as well, is that some scholars are curious as to whether or not the Egyptian Pharaoh Akhenaten, influenced Judaism. He gave sole worship to the sun god Aten, but was ultimately unsuccessful in suppressing the worship of other deities. One thing we know, is that in earlier Jewish tradition, God appears to humans. In later tradition, God exists only as spirit. He became more transcendent over time and eventually was considered to be pure spirit. His name also became more sacred over time, to the point where nobody was allowed to say it. So we can clearly see the religion evolving over time. Side: Polytheistic
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So, that's something. It was an article by Princeton, so that should give us a little bit of a better idea of what his role was there. Perhaps, though he is clearly doing other things during that time period, so I wouldn't exactly take the 10 years that strongly (He also wrote several other books during that time, so it isn't as if this was his full time role). Either way, I think regardless, we should focus on his arguments, the support he offers and the underlying logical structure as the best analysis of the validity. But that's why the argument is controversial, right? There are obviously different reasons for controversy from different people. The concept of monolatry is controversial because it is unlikely that we would have so few occurrences of an event given the number of times it should have happened. It is even more odd given that the two examples supposedly offer share virtually nothing in common. Given the relatively rarity of monolatry in human history combined with a more tortured explanation of the data, it seems highly improbable to be the best explanation. It would be like finding a painting of the Mona Lisa in an antiques store, and it doesn't say "reproduction." We know that once there was a painting of the Mona Lisa done by Leonardo DiVinci. We have two explanations, either the person forgot to write reproduction, or this is a long lost second copy of that original painting. The former is an explanation of the evidence that requires a far lower level of stretching the evidence, and given the rare number of times an original Mona Lisa has been produced, that is hardly a fitting explanation for the evidence we have. Likewise, interpreting the dating and biblical hebrew of the OT in manners not commonly (if ever) used by other scholars might hold weight if Monolatry was a common occurrence. But arguing for a less probable interpretation of the text combined with a virtually unheard of outcome strains plausibility. The letters of Paul are the oldest text in Christianity, despite the fact that the gospels come first in the Bible. This isn't actually accurate. Again, those dates only conform if you are only saying "what date do we have the earliest version of the exact text we currently have today? If we held other works to the same standard, we could only date Huck Finn to about 1978 or 1983 when it underwent some linguistic changes to account for non-standardized spellings. We could only data Shakespeare's work to about 75 years after his death, etc. However, if we ask a far more useful question. "How early can we date the core narrative of the gospels?" We get a much, much different picture. The core of Mark goes back to about AD37. Rudolf Pesh has made the definitive argument in this field for about 30 years with Das Markusevangelium. I'm not aware of any scholar that disagrees with Pesh on this date, rather the questions in this field come from other parts of Mark, (addition of lineage, and two or three parables) which perhaps came as late as 80AD, though they clearly come from earlier sources. Another small point. When you say the gospels were "written" after Paul's letters, we should be clear about what is meant here. First, when I "write\" something, that term in English can mean, to literally put it on paper or it can mean to compose it. When scholars refer to Paul's letters being "written" before the Gospels, they largely mean the former version, not the latter. We should also discuss the composition of Luke (which was composed after the Epistles, and is about the time you suggest in your post). Most historians agree that the author of Luke was a follower of Paul during his missionary work (notice that the book of Acts goes from "he" to "we"). We also know from Acts that the author returned to Jerusalem and met the Apostles, so was interviewing eye-witnesses in his work. Compare that to the widely accepted history of Alexander by Plutarch, which was composed about 400 years after Alexander's death and contains no texts from any eye-witness to the events. You mean in the interview they had with one person? lol So I took this class in college called Histriography, which talks all about how we write and research history. We had some pretty interesting discussions on documentaries there. For example, did you know Ken Burns is famous for displaying a picture of someone and having an actor read a quote even though the quote isn't from the person in the picture? PBS is doing something similar here. By only interviewing one person (on camera) they are advertising that this is the expert and that he/she is relating current consensus. Rather, if you look at the website for this show you'll notice they reference 6 different people, and that the story lines of their various works are relatively disparate. Some argue for a non-egyptian exodus, some argue the pastoral evolution theory, the interviewee holds the later Babylonian creation theory, and one holds a trade route theory explanation. Regardless, these are relatively fringe theories in Archeology and they require dismissing a vast, vast amount of contemporary evidence in order to accept. I don't know of many non-religious scholars who believe that there was a "large scale" Exodus. I think you must be unfamiliar with the current state of Archeology. Most hold that there was a large amount of semitic movement from egypt into canaan around this period. I would be surprised if you could find a single mainstream archeologists that doesn't argue for an expulsion of the Hyksos people from egypt around this time, though some will disagree whether this fits the Exodus group. There is NO Egyptian archaeological record that mentions Moses. Why would there be? Remember that somewhere around 95-98% of all Egyptian records have been lost. Papyrus is a notoriously bad product for living up to the centuries. Egyptians are also relatively for not recording things that made them look bad. Remember they have to keep up the image that the Pharoah is a god. To whit: On top of that, there is no Egyptian record of a slave rebellion and there is none mentioning an Exodus. Few ancient cultures (or modern ones) erect statues and monuments to military defeats or embarrassments. And remember, that is virtually all we have left from the Egyptian sources on these incidents. I'll remind you that there are no Egyptian records of the battles of Carchemish or its follow on at Hamath. Or the battle of Pelusium, which we only know of because Herodotus records it so well. We can also deduce some significant battles happened between Egypt and the Mitanni in which Egypt lost (since major campaigns have to occur to reconquer areas). But we have no direct record of losses from either side. They Egyptians rarely recorded (in stone form, the kind we still have access too) major defeats or embarrassments, and when they did, they often recorded them as victories (see their embarrassment at the hands of the Hittites or the expulsion of they Hyksos). It becomes difficult to believe that not only would Moses be monotheistic, but the Hebrew people before him as well. Why? You are begging the question here I think. You are assuming a naturalist explanation and a lack of monotheism within Semitic culture which isn't justified by the evidence. It would seem perfectly natural for a person like Moses to grow up a polytheist, but convert upon learning of his ethnic background. This would make sense that a slave rebellion would also rebel against the common belief system. But no one is claiming a slave rebellion. The biblical accounts are of a divine Exodus, the Egyptian ones of a period of either emigration due to disaster or exile due to military conquest. Another thing I'd like to mention, which I think you may have brought up as well, is that some scholars are curious as to whether or not the Egyptian Pharaoh Akhenaten, influenced Judaism. That has been floated by some scholars, but it has some significant hurdles. The first being that Akhenanten ruled after the Israelites likely left Egypt, following the period of instability. Some historians place the Israelite leaving about a hundred years after Akhenanten, but that date is problematic given the other references I mention above. Second, we can't establish causation. If we assume the Israelites were contemporaries or just before Akhenanten, it is presumable they influenced him. I personally doubt this is the case given that most scholarly consensus revolves around this imposition as an attempt to suppress rival groups within the priestly class. The fact that the most suppressed groups were the priestess of Amun, who also were the favored group of the next dynasty argues more for political struggle in my mind. Side: Monolatry
This isn't actually accurate. Again, those dates only conform if you are only saying "what date do we have the earliest version of the exact text we currently have today? We know that Paul's letters were being passed around like pamphlets prior to any written record of the Gospels. It's accepted by most scholars that the Gospels were being shared through oral tradition until the year 70. Written record to us is the best thing, but it was different back then. Papias, a Christian leader wrote sometime around the years 130 to 140: "I shall not hesitate to put down for you with my interpretations whatsoever things I well learned at one time from the Presbyters, and well remembered, confidently asserting truthfulness for them. For I did not take pleasure as the multitude does in those who say many things, but in those who teach the things that are true. Nor did I take pleasure in those who recall strange commands, but in those who recall the commands given by the Lord of the Faith and coming from Truth itself. But if, per chance, there came, also, anyone who had followed the Presbyters, I made inquiry concerning the words of the Presbyters, what Andrew or what Peter had said, or what Phillip or what Thomas or James, or what John or Matthew, or any of the other disciples of the Lord said. And what things Aristeon and the Presbyter John, disciples of the Lord used to say. For I did not suppose that the things from the books would aid me, so much as things from the living and continuing voice". So, I know that was a long quote... but basically what Papias is saying is that at a time (clearly an earlier date than the ones I mentioned above) in his life, he went and interviewed elderly men who had apparently known the apostles. What he discovered through these interviews is that the oral tradition was much more reliable than the written record. That's just a little bit of information I find interesting, regarding New Testament. If we held other works to the same standard, we could only date Huck Finn to about 1978 or 1983 when it underwent some linguistic changes to account for non-standardized spellings. We could only data Shakespeare's work to about 75 years after his death, etc. No, it would be like if there were no known copies of Huck Finn, in general, until about 1978 or 1983... and they all seem appropriate for that time period. We haven't found any records dating back earlier than the dates I mentioned in my previous argument. We also haven't found any written accounts mentioning written Gospels, Biblical letters, etc. prior to the dates that I listed. The core of Mark goes back to about AD37. Rudolf Pesh has made the definitive argument in this field for about 30 years with Das Markusevangelium. I'm not aware of any scholar that disagrees with Pesh on this date, rather the questions in this field come from other parts of Mark, (addition of lineage, and two or three parables) which perhaps came as late as 80AD, though they clearly come from earlier sources. If Mr. Pesch is referring to oral history of Mark, he may be right... but written record, I don't know of any scholars who agree with that date (AD 37). Another small point. When you say the gospels were "written" after Paul's letters, we should be clear about what is meant here. First, when I "write\" something, that term in English can mean, to literally put it on paper or it can mean to compose it. When scholars refer to Paul's letters being "written" before the Gospels, they largely mean the former version, not the latter. Well, he was definitely influenced by oral tradition, but certain things were likely of his own creation and many scholars believe that certain parts of Paul's letters, were not actually written by Paul. Like I said before, Paul's letters were being passed around, sort of like pamphlets, and what we find (or what is agreed upon) is that there were imitations of Paul's letters. Ephesians is a pretty good example of what scholars believe was an imitation of Paul's letters. We should also discuss the composition of Luke (which was composed after the Epistles, and is about the time you suggest in your post). Most historians agree that the author of Luke was a follower of Paul during his missionary work (notice that the book of Acts goes from "he" to "we"). We also know from Acts that the author returned to Jerusalem and met the Apostles, so was interviewing eye-witnesses in his work. Yeah, it's widely agreed upon that the author of Luke, probably wasn't Luke... and he most likely wasn't a companion of Paul. Matthew and Luke were written after Mark and are believed to have used Mark as a source. Another thing to note, is that in the beginning of Luke it says: "Since many have undertaken to set down an orderly account of the events that have been fulfilled among us, just as they were handed on to us by those who from the beginning were eyewitnesses and servants of the word, I, too, decided after investigating everything carefully from the very first to write an orderly account for you, most excellent Theophilus, so that you may know the truth concerning the things about what you have been instructed." So, right there, the author of Luke is saying that he read written accounts and did a little bit of research, and came up with his own Gospel. So I took this class in college called Histriography, which talks all about how we write and research history. We had some pretty interesting discussions on documentaries there. That's pretty cool. I also took a few college courses that I think gives me a little bit of authority on the subject as well... Religion and Archaeology. I think you must be unfamiliar with the current state of Archeology. Most hold that there was a large amount of semitic movement from egypt into canaan around this period. I wouldn't say most. Actually, Israel Finkelstein, who I mentioned earlier in our debate, had this to say: ""The Israelites were never in Egypt, did not wander in the desert, did not conquer the land [of Canaan] in a military campaign and did not pass it on to the twelve tribes of Israel. Perhaps even harder to swallow is the fact that the united kingdom of David and Solomon, described in the Bible as a regional power, was at most a small tribal kingdom." Now, that's just one example, but the general consensus among most archaeologists and Biblical scholars, is that the Exodus never occurred and if something similar did take place, it was small, if anything. I would be surprised if you could find a single mainstream archeologists that doesn't argue for an expulsion of the Hyksos people from egypt around this time, though some will disagree whether this fits the Exodus group. What many believe is that the Exodus in the Bible is an exaggeration of the expulsion of the Hyksos. http://mailstar.net/ Why? You are begging the question here I think. You are assuming a naturalist explanation and a lack of monotheism within Semitic culture which isn't justified by the evidence. The problem here is that we are looking at this from two different perspectives. You're coming from the religious point of view, where as, I'm not. But no one is claiming a slave rebellion. The biblical accounts are of a divine Exodus, the Egyptian ones of a period of either emigration due to disaster or exile due to military conquest. Does the Bible not teach that the Jews were slaves in Egypt? Side: Polytheistic
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We know that Paul's letters were being passed around like pamphlets prior to any written record of the Gospels. Again, this isn't quite accurate as I pointed out. There was a written account of athe core of Mark floating around at about 40AD, well before the actual physical written copies of Paul's letters. What you are referring to is the difference between the core text and the full text we generally read, which comes from one or two other sources at around 80 to 90AD. Neither of those argues though that the Gospels were composed prior to the Epistles however, which is the relevant point. So, I know that was a long quote... but basically what Papias is saying is that at a time (clearly an earlier date than the ones I mentioned above) in his life, he went and interviewed elderly men who had apparently known the apostles. What he discovered through these interviews is that the oral tradition was much more reliable than the written record. That's just a little bit of information I find interesting, regarding New Testament. From a pure historiographical point of view we can argue that the Greeks, Hebrews and a few others had a remarkable system for recording oral traditions reliably through time. It is one of the reasons the Greeks had such complicated poetic understanding. That system reinforced which words were required in the recitation, otherwise the meter was broken. It is also the reason so many people find "codes" in the OT, Hebrews used specific rules for transcribing and reciting stories that would indicate whether a substitution would be made. These were similar to what we current use as validation techniques for data transfer. No, it would be like if there were no known copies of Huck Finn, in general, until about 1978 or 1983... and they all seem appropriate for that time period. We haven't found any records dating back earlier than the dates I mentioned in my previous argument. We also haven't found any written accounts mentioning written Gospels, Biblical letters, etc. prior to the dates that I listed. This represents a rather outdated view of textual analysis however. We can date parts of text within documents based on their phraseology and writing. That is what most Ancient Literature scholars spend their time doing. We have no surviving accounts of Plato, Aristotle or Socrates, we have third party translations of them, or discussions of them from which we can use literary analysis to determine what is likely the original source and what is added on later. That is how we know that the core document that Mark, for example, is based upon goes back to a much earlier period than the dates you mention. If Mr. Pesch is referring to oral history of Mark, he may be right... but written record, I don't know of any scholars who agree with that date (AD 37). Actually he isn't. His argument is specifically on the textual writing style of the documentation. The archaic word forms, the sentence structure and the phraseology. Some of that could be from an oral source, but much of his analysis relies on the written structure of the words. Remember, at this point neither Hebrew or Greek or Aramaic had work breaks (the spaces between words) so various other techniques were given to hint at word division. Those are written techniques only and many of the ones contained in Mark date back to a much, much earlier period. Meaning that it must have been a written version the author was copying from. What most scholars are talking about when the argue that Mark included oral sources is the non-core part of the text. Notice that Mark goes from a series of annecdotes to a coherent narrative, and quite abruptly. The former are almost certainly oral traditions (remember it is likely that Mark became Peter's interpreter at one point and that he was recording what Peter told him as it occurred to Peter), the latter however was almost certainly a written tradition given the comments I mention above. I would recommend this work on the book of Mark: http://www.thefreelibrary.com/ They use this type of textual analysis to show the core of Mark originating no later than the early 40s. They also do a good job stripping out most of the Gospel of Thomas as having clearly been written much later than AD 200, though they take the stand that parts are earlier (something still in hot dispute in the community). I think it is important to remember that many critics of the resurrection point to Mark's early date in an attempt to discredit Matthew and Luke as independent sources for the account. They argue that the authors of both accounts were aware of Mark's version (meaning it must have been widely distributed pre-AD 60) and copied it. That isn't a very strong argument (for reasons outside the scope of this thread), but it at least shows that regardless of which side one falls on, there is pretty broad consideration to the early account of Mark. William Lane Craig does a good job discussing the scholarly position (obviously from a sympathetic viewpoint) here and it is pretty clear that we can capture almost all NT scholars if we put a date of AD50 on the account of Mark, and well over a plurality if we go back to the early 40s. Yeah, it's widely agreed upon that the author of Luke, probably wasn't Luke... and he most likely wasn't a companion of Paul This isn't a factual statement. First we should point out that there is no real debate on the issue of Luke/Acts being the same author (as can be seen in my support below). So all that remains to be seen is whether or not Luke was likely a companion of Paul. Again, we find virtually no disagreement amongst scholars on this. The "We" verses, the linguistic similarity, the regional phrasing all point to someone who encountered the Church early on and traveled widely. Further, the minor discrepancies between the book of Acts and the actual letters argues that the author did not have an original source to refer to (and given, as you point out the early and widespread use of these letters) meaning his work is likely very early in the Church and that he likely travelled with Paul, since Paul wouldn't have kept these letters himself, but dispatched them. The criticism you might be referring to is whether or not the Luke of the two books is the physician Luke and you are correct there, that was in fact a hot debate in 200AD as well (see my first source) and that Irenaeus was correct in his argument that attribution to Luke was not Luke of the Romans (doctor). Many have done excellent work arguing that Luke's language is not specific to a medical person of the period, which casts doubt on a long standing premise that his writing indicates a medical history. But it is important to note that the doctor tradition arises late in the Church's history and is not connected directly with the account. That criticism is not however, comparable to the author not being contemporary with Paul however, which is about as universally accepted as something gets in this field: Easiest to review: http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/ Udo Schnelle, The History and Theology of the New Testament Writings http://bibleandteaching.com/ http://kmooreperspective.blogspot.com/ https://bible.org/seriespage/ http://www.religion-online.org/ http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/ http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/ Matthew and Luke were written after Mark and are believed to have used Mark as a source. And I'm not aware of any scholar that doubts that. It is virtually assured that the reason Luke waited nearly 20 years to write the Gospel after finishing Acts is because he was waiting on Mark as a source. Both authors almost assuredly used Mark as a source. But Mark is not their only source as is pretty well agreed upon for most historians. Luke was known to have another eye-witness source known as the L source (which was probably an oral tradition): https://wipfandstock.com/store/MattheanandLukanSpecialMaterialABriefIntroductionwithTextsinGreekand_English Matthew has a contemporary source known as the M source (not very creative)(which was unlikely to be oral, but it is possible: http://www.katapi.org.uk/4Gospels/ It also seems likely they both drew from a fourth source, the Q source, which was almost certainly written. http://www.oxfordreference.com/view/ Both sources are separate from each other (though it is unclear if they are completely independent) and both date back to very early sources. One is perhaps the same source used by Paul, which has been dated back to about 5 years following the crucifixion (see my link to Craig for this discussion). That's pretty cool. I also took a few college courses that I think gives me a little bit of authority on the subject as well... Religion and Archaeology. Sorry if that came across as an appeal to authority, I didn't mean it as such. It just reminded me of something that struck me from that class and that has bothered me about documentaries ever since. Now, that's just one example, but the general consensus among most archaeologists and Biblical scholars, is that the Exodus never occurred and if something similar did take place, it was small, if anything. I think I've already offered a great deal of evidence that this isn't the case. Some scholars do question whether the Semitic presence in Egypt (no dispute) was the same as the later Israelite group, but if you include those archeologists that think they are the same, and those that think at least a significant portion of the the Israelites came from an area external to Canaan and most of those from somewhere near or in Egypt we are talking well over a majority here. The idea that there is even a discussion about large scale semetic leaving of Israel is absolutely untrue. Even if we only consider the Hyksos expulsion there are no mainstream scholars that deny Semites were periodically expelled from Egypt. What many believe is that the Exodus in the Bible is an exaggeration of the expulsion of the Hyksos. So we can tell from this that: a) There is no real debate on Semitic expulsion from Egypt. b) That there is some connect between that expulsion and the Israelites. So we are left with the question of what level of connection that shares. Given the other archeological evidence offered, and the contextual evidence from Egyptian sources it seems likely that the indentification of Israel represents a new ethnic group in the region and that at least part of this group is of Egyptian origin. The problem here is that we are looking at this from two different perspectives. You're coming from the religious point of view, where as, I'm not. And at least from an evidentiary point of view my viewpoint is the more inclusive one. I incorporate several possibilities towards the origin of Israelite Monotheism and then reject those not supported or contradicted by the evidence. You would have to automatically reject at least one of those theories as impossible (since it violates naturalist assumptions) and then proceed from there. Does the Bible not teach that the Jews were slaves in Egypt? Absolutely, but not an uprising. The Bible refers to an expulsion of Jews from Egypt. Side: Monolatry
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Jews consider the 'us" to be either God speaking to his heavenly court and assembly. 26.Then God said, “Let us make mankind in our image, in our likeness, so that they may rule over the fish in the sea and the birds in the sky, over the livestock and all the wild animals,[a] and over all the creatures that move along the ground.” 27. So God created mankind in his own image, in the image of God he created the male and female he created them. christianity understands it to be God speaking to the other aspects of his triunity. He is speaking to his Son and the Holy Spirit. So when God speaks, he considers himself to be three, but he expects human beings such as the writer to read and consider him as one unit. Side: Polytheistic
It's not my interpretation, after researching I noticed that most rabbis believed that out of 5 possibilities. So i stated what I saw. Admittedly my research could have been much more extensive, but I couldn't be bothered. What archaeological evidence do you have to suggest against my claim that early Christians never believed the second suggestion? Side: Polytheistic
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I am aware of it, though I haven't personally read it. The problem as I understand it (given the criticism offered by several History of Religion scholars in the NYT) is that it is very superficial. He skims quite a bit of academic literature, but doesn't do any deep dives into the actual content, which leads to a conclusion that differs significantly from the consensus amongst scholars. I would recommend a more scholarly book by Dr. Richard Hess, who is the Earl S. Kalland Professor of Old Testament and Semitic Languages at Denver Seminary,http://www.denverseminary.edu/ Side: Polytheistic
I am aware of it, though I haven't personally read it. The problem as I understand it (given the criticism offered by several History of Religion scholars in the NYT) is that it is very superficial. He skims quite a bit of academic literature, but doesn't do any deep dives into the actual content, which leads to a conclusion that differs significantly from the consensus amongst scholars. Oh really? I guess they didn't read the book then. I've read a few books on religion (as well as religion textbooks in college) and his is very thorough. Maybe they didn't look at the final pages, in which he includes his references. It would be hard to miss though, he only has a few chapters devoted to discussing his references. I would recommend a more scholarly book by Dr. Richard Hess, who is the Earl S. Kalland Professor of Old Testament and Semitic Languages at Denver Seminary,http://www.denverseminary.edu/ Did you read it yourself? Side: Polytheistic
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I guess they didn't read the book then. I think you misunderstood the argument presented. It wasn't that he didn't do extensive research, it was that his research was relatively shallow in nature and relied heavily on secondary sources rather than primary sources. Did you read it yourself? I did actually, I read the Kindle version two years ago as part of an apologetics study on this subject on another debate site. Side: Monolatry
I think you misunderstood the argument presented. It wasn't that he didn't do extensive research, it was that his research was relatively shallow in nature and relied heavily on secondary sources rather than primary sources. Can you provide me with a link to their review? Side: Polytheistic
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Judaism was an offshoot of the Canaanite religion, but their sect practiced monolatry as they BELIEVED in all the gods in the pantheon (which is what the term "El Elyon" refers to) but only worshiped one- the minor sky deity YHWH (Germanized as Jehovah). It wasn't until the eighth century BCE that the Jews became monotheists after contact with the Greeks. CHRISTIANS on the other hand are pretty much polytheists. The "trinity" is a doctrine the early church adopted at the Council of Nicaea. The early Christians were highly divided on whether "Jesus" WAS god or just the son of god- the Council voted on "god" (despite the fact that this made the "atonement" nonsensical- how does one sacrifice himself to himself?), since the Jews of the time were denouncing them as polytheists for worshiping god AND "Jesus". So they stole a march from the Zoroastrians and developed the Trinity nonsense to claim Jesus was god too. Side: Monolatry
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