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Debate Score:265
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YES HE WAS A PEDO No things were different then

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 islam muhammad pedophile koran lies (1)
 
 islam pedophile muhammad lies koran (1)

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AtheistAtLrg(35)
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Was muhammad a pedophile


YES HE WAS A PEDO

Side Score: 206
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No things were different then

Side Score: 59
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10 points

According to common practice, islamic laws dictate that female must have her Menzies in order to have sex with her.

HOWEVER, muhammad was the prophet of islam, he could do no wrong as evidenced in the koran, (his testimonies) and the hadiths. (testimonies about him)

He married his 3rd wife at 6, canceling a marriage in place, this was illegal.

At Aysha's house when she was 9, her mother took her from her swing and friends to give her to the prophet and he bedded her later.

NO mention of menzies were made, only Ayshas testimony in hadith that the prophet did so because there was but a single blanket between them.

MUD MAN WAS A PEDO

DEBATE FAITH 24/7

Posted 190 days ago
- pic chascharlton(1) Favored
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1 point  

There can be no excuse for the manipulation and or abusing of children full stop.

Posted 106 days ago
+ pic mumin(212) Opposed
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-2 points
- pic Rhyolite(31) Opposed
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0 points

I will agree that the marriage with A'isha was a political marriage, but Muhammad still took advantage of her at a young age - 9 years old, if I'm right.

If I may say, only someone with a strong Shi'ite background makes comments like yours. You place very high emphasis on the Prophet's family who, according to Shi'ite doctrine, are the true successors to the caliphate. And yes, A'isha was the daughter of Abu Bakr, good friend of the Prophet and first of the "political caliphs". I can only assume that one of her "attempts to destroy" Islam occurred during the Battle of the Camel where Ali ibn Abu Talib, the first Shi'ite imam and cousin of Muhammad, took victory and spared A'isha's life.

Yes, I'm showing off a little, but it makes your inherent bias more apparent. Who's to say that your facts aren't just as distorted as those of the Sunni? No one can really say, but both sides hold the above facts as true, seeing as that they are historical and actually occurred and all. It's all a matter of spin after that.

But I digress again. Having sex with a nine-year-old girl constitutes pedophilia in the modern sense of the word.

Posted 169 days ago
+ pic tessader(2) Opposed
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-2 points
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2 points

You dont think so ?????

Care to cite why ?

Posted 190 days ago
+ pic tessader1(1) Favored
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-3 points
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7 points

The problem with the "things were different then" defense is that it suggests that mans laws, customs and moralities take priority to Gods will. If Mohammad was indeed man of God, he would be subject to Allah's will, not the sick customs of the time.

Posted 190 days ago
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6 points

It doesn't matter on your view of right or wrong, the technical definition of pedophilia is fucking children.

Posted 190 days ago
- pic ithcy(1) Opposed
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3 points

No, that's not the definition of pedophilia. "Ped" means "child" in English, and "phil" means "love". Does Anglophile mean "England-fucker" ? Does philosopher mean "wisdom-fucker"?

If you're going to be "technical", you should probably at least get it right.

Posted 185 days ago
- pic ThePyg(758) Opposed
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1 point  

you know the point i was trying to make, don't try and spin the topic.

Posted 183 days ago
- pic Tamisan(840) Opposed
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1 point  

"Pedophilia or paedophilia is the sexual preference of an adult for prepubescent children, or, according to the DSM, a form of paraphilia in which a person either has acted on intense sexual urges towards children, or has sexual urges towards and fantasies about children that cause distress or interpersonal difficulty. A person with this attraction is called a pedophile or paedophile."

Muhammed had sex with a greater number of women then prepubescent girls, so his preference was not for the latter.

Supporting Evidence: Wikipedia definition of pedophile (en.wikipedia.org)
Posted 190 days ago
- pic CalamtyJames(5) Opposed
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3 points

You quite clearly read no further than the first paragraph of the link you cited. In fact, the wiki link actually gets in to the Krafft-Ebbing categorization which outlines the 3 proper types of pedophilia, each of which have quite different definitions.

These 3 "types" are A) Preferential, which is the "classic" laymen definition of pedophilia. B) Surrogate, which in short could be summed up as "taking what you can get." Of course its not quite as simple, but its generally a form of "settling" for a girl who is of the "proper" age of pedophilia desires. Finally, C) is Sadistic, which is of course fairly self explanatory. Basically about power and control and such more than sexual attraction. But again, to be clear thats simple in the interest of time (or more accurately, space).

So we get to your claim. A man, Muhammed in this case, had sex with as you say women both of what we might think of as "proper" age, and also young girls of what we would consider not. This fits definition A fairly well. Definition A pedophiles often live "normal" lives with proper aged girlfriends, boyfriends, husbands, or wives. However, an outside observer would have no right or ability to properly claim which of these aspects of his or her sexuality was indeed their "preference." In fact quite the opposite of what you suggest, it is usually found after some study that someone who has relationships with both of age and not of age individuals usually has a "preference" for the latter. But i digress.

Number of sexual encounters is of little evidence either way. There is no correlation to be drawn there. It matters not which "way" is more common for the individual in question. This is not the way which you diagnose such a "disorder."

Finally, my purpose for defining more properly. Even barring what we might in this context call "Type A Pedophilia," the argument you have put forth says nothing against "surrogate pedophilia" where an adult will have relations with a child in abstentia of a more proper mate. This has NOTHING to do with actual "preference" as it is most commonly considered, however it is still very much legitimately referred to as "pedophilia."

I know i have run on, i hope i have shed some light on the faultiness of the logic you have employed :]

Posted 190 days ago
- pic RevFred(311) Opposed
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2 points

Does it say somewhere in there that every one of Muhammeds sexual indiscretions are in the book? I'm sure they only pointed out his sexual acts that were suppose to have some kind of meaning.

Posted 188 days ago
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4 points

He slept with a 9 year old. He is technically a pedophile, whether you (whoever) choose to excuse it or not.

Posted 190 days ago
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3 points

"that the Prophet married her when she was six years old and he consummated his marriage when she was nine years old"

Posted 190 days ago
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3 points

Yes, he had sex with a 9 year old.

To say that things were different then is totally illogical when we are talking about gods morality. Are we saying that gods morality can change now? How is this possible if he is perfect?

Posted 190 days ago

He like to fuck kids both in real life and probably in his day dreams. That's a pedophile alright.

CreateDebate's owners should be fearing for their life right about now.

Posted 190 days ago