Why does the Bible tell rape victims to marry their rapist?
The proof is in my first comment.
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Back then women were considered worthless unless they were virgins before marriage. Even many of the ones who were virgins were still just thought of as property. The Bible even says you can sell your daughters as slaves and/or wives (Exodus 21:7). Most people wouldn't marry someone who wasn't a virgin. In fact, if a husband discovered his bride wasn't a virgin on their wedding night (i.e. she didn't bleed on the sheets when they consummated the marriage), then she was to be stoned to death (Deuteronomy 22:20). So, if a woman is raped, no one will want to marry her because she's not a virgin. So, instead of god telling the people to not be such assholes and to stop treating women like crap, he figured the best solution would be to make the rapist marry her since no one else will want her. Also note that the rapist has to pay fifty shekels to her father, not to her. I assume that's because he won't be able to sell her now. I agree with you. Women under Tanak (Old Testament) law were really just slaves to men and their government. Women under the Old Testament were forced to marry their rapist, obey their husband, conceive and bear children, and live as property. They were forbidden to have any form of autonomy. I only stay religious due to a fear of Hell. I wish I could do my own thing. :( 0
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You are obviously trying to tear down the Bible, so before you judgmental hypocrites start judging God, lets compare today's Democrat's support of late term abortions for healthy little babies with healthy mothers. Which is worse, telling the mother and the rapist father of a child that he must raise the child he created, or killing little innocent babies? TELL ME YOU JUDGMENTAL FOOL! 2
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