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The definition of "pedophilia" is harshly challenged, and the definition provided by the DSM-IV is considered null, backed by very little evidence, and purely political (see Green, 2002; Moser & Kleinplatz, 2003; Spitzer, 2005). If we are to define pedophilia solely as one's internal sexual desires, we have absolutely no way of testing this since no empirical evidence about Mohammad's sexual orientation (pedophilia or lack thereof) exists.
Therefore we have only the "prophet's" actions to go by. And if we are to consider his rape of a nubile, defenseless child: Yes, Mohammad was a pedophile. Even though he had other wives, this does not somehow outweigh these obviously pedophilic acts (if we go are defining "pedophilia" on one's actions, the only empirical evidence afforded to us in this situation). We are forced to choose one or the other in this scenario, pedophile or not, and defining him as a "pedophile" is the most intellectually honest choice in the situation.
I am probably a good person but I haven't taken the time to fill out my profile, so you'll never know! |