Can a woman rape a man?
yes
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no
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Yes a woman can rape a man and a man can rape a woman. Just because a man is more dominant than the woman doesn't mean when a woman does wrong to a guy physically it doesn't count as rape. Any sexual activity between male and female that wasn't intended is called rape Side: yes
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Yes. Sexual arousal is not the same as consent, and is in fact an entirely involuntary response to stimuli. A bit of fellatio will generally have most guys ready to go regardless of their disposition towards the person. Women, as well, will generally respond towards some stimulation with physical arousal as well, and that doesn't mean they consent either. Not just that, but there is also legal precedent for certain circumstances where the consent itself is not valid; women who consent while intoxicated have the precedent to call it rape after the fact. Consent from an intoxicated male is equally invalid. Furthermore, there is precedent for it being considered rape when the actual sexual activity varies from what was previously agreed on. As a key example, there is precedent for rape in the case of a woman consenting to sex with a condom and the male fails to wear one or removes it mid-coitus. Similarly, a man may consent to sex with a condom or with the intent to withdraw, or under the impression that the woman is on birth control; if the woman were to, through whatever means, make it happen without the condom, not allow him to withdraw, or lie regarding her birth control status, that should fall under the same laws. I should note, though, that I think we need a separate term from rape for cases like date rape, intoxication, and sexual activity differing from what was consented to. My reasoning for this is that there is a fundamental difference between being forced into sex unwillingly and being taken advantage of while intoxicated, or consenting to something with an individual and getting something different. Rape is a brutal attack, usually both physical and psychological, and while it may have the same aftermath, calling these others offenses by the same work (in my mind at least) dilutes the term and cheapens the pain of those who have been forcibly raped, as well as muddying the waters in terms of legal precedent even further than they already are. Side: yes
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When I first read the question I assumed it meant physical rape of a man's erect penis by a woman so I will answer that part first. Yes - while it is very rare, there are some cases where a woman has had vaginal intercourse with a man against his will. Statutory rape and sodomizing a male against his will have also happened. There are lots of legal definitions for rape which vary by country (and even by state in the US). Until recently (2012) the US only counted carnal knowledge of a woman against her will which excluded men and even excluded women that were in a coma or drugged, etc. http://www.reuters.com/article/2012/01/ I noticed you live in Spain, so copying in the link for sexual assault in Spain which seems to apply to men and women. Didn't see another statute for rape, but didn't look long since my spanish is a bit rusty. http://noticias.juridicas.com/basedatos/Penal/lo10-1995.l2t8.html#c2 Here is a recent article that seems to indicate that generally only men can rape in England, Wales, and Scotland http://www.bbc.co.uk/news/ (BTW, I wasn't the one that down-voted) Side: yes
There are surely cases of woman forcing mean into penetrating them but this still does not constitute rape. It is a sexual assault. I'm most familiar with English law. Sexual Offences Act 2003, S.1 defines rape as: A person (A) commits an offence if— (a)he intentionally penetrates the vagina, anus or mouth of another person (B) with his penis, (b)B does not consent to the penetration, and (c)A does not reasonably believe that B consents. The word 'he' is used in English law to mean he or she. However clearly a woman doesn't have a penis. Therefore, under English law a woman cannot rape. Side: yes
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