Is 1+1=2?
Does adding 1 and 1 equal 2?
Yes
Side Score: 26
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No
Side Score: 29
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I will argue that it depends on the base system you are using before any results can be made. In fact 1 + 1 in base 2 (binary) is 2 ^ 1 + 2 ^ 0 = 2 + 1 = 3. Since human beings over the centuries have created symbols to represent and quantify the perceived world, we have all sorts of dilemmas and inconsistencies as to what reality is! Therefore 1 + 1 does not always equal 2. You can also concatenate 1 + 1 to get 11 as previously argued. We have inherited the Hindu-Arab counting system of 10 fingers or base 10. The Mayans included both feet and developed a counting scheme of base 20. The Greeks and Romans used base 12 (Signs of the Zodiac, Months to the year, 12 hour day, 12 hour night, etc.). Answer this one, "are we really in 2009 using base 10? Or should we be in some other year based on 12?" Side: No
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I had this argument before with someone who was trying to prove a philosophical point. I'll say what I said to him. If you're simply saying (as I guess you're trying to say) 1+1=2, then yes. There are no mitigating factors. No assumptions are being made. Whatever it is that the numbers are meant to represent are not present. Therefore there is no basis on which to assume we are talking about something other than the number, 1 in addition to the number 1. It's a practice in futility generally speaking, to begin coming up with reasons something we give a definition to, by it's own definition, would not be true. Imagine if we walked around all day questioning every simple thing in such a way? "Have a nice day!" "Wait, when you say have a nice day, am I meant to give birth to a day? does that mean you have a 'day' in your pocket you are planning on giving to me at some point? Is "nice day" a new Holiday I haven't heard of yet? A day on Jupiter only lasts 10 hours, if there wishing me a Jupiter nice day, that might not be as nice as an Earth nice day" etc. Society as we know it would come to a halt. There is a time and place for a philosophical discussion. 1+1 is not it. Side: yes
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1 does not even = 1 there are many proofs that 1 = .9999999 (repeating) http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/0.999... -- simplest using your calculator - (or just division for us geeks) 1/9 = .111111 (repeating) 9 x 1/9 = 9 x .111111 (repeating) = .9999999 (repeating) 9 x 1/9 = 9/9 = 1 -- using the basics of how to turn a repeating decimal into a fraction n = .9999999 (repeating) 10n = 9.9999999 (repeating) ---------------------------- 9n = 9 (subtract top from bottom) n = 1 (divide by 9 on both sides) Side: No
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I was tryng to point out that 9 times 1/9 equals 1 and also equals .999999999... you can do the math in your head - 1/9 is 1 divided by 9: .1111111111 ----_____________ 9 / 1.0000000000 ------9 ---------- ------10 (repeat forever) and 9 X .1111111111 = .99999999999 sorry if lines and stuff don't line up but i figure you get the idea - the wiki article linked above has more (and better looking) proofs :) Side: No
This question seems to be extremely vague as this sum can and/or cannot be equal to 2, depending on certain concepts. FOR EXAMPLE: Mathematically, we are taught that 1+1=2.(simply put). If you consider it scientifically - say, 1) a mixture of elements - 1 element added to another element - the resulting solution would have 2 (elements). Still perceiving this equation scientifically - 2) a compound of elements - 1 element added to another element -the resulting solution would be equal to 1 whole.
This seemingly simple question can actually be rather difficult, depending of course on how you decide to look at it. Side: No
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not all the time math rules always correct.!! like for example..if 1= to square root of 1... then square root of one is equal to square root of -1 times the square root of -1,then it will equal to i squared which also equal to -1, so 1+-1=0...!!! it always depend on the solution..!!! maybe its correct and maybe its not..!! Side: No
"like for example..if 1= to square root of 1... then square root of one is equal to square root of -1 times the square root of -1,then it will equal to i squared which also equal to -1," Watch this: http://www.youtube.com/ "so 1+-1=0...!!!" Correct, but not what this debate is asking for... Side: Yes
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You don't need scientific evidence for math. The concept of the number 2 is based on the definition of that it is the combination of 1 and 1. The form of a number 2 is certainly not composed by two forms of 1 and 1, but the concepts that they represent create a valid equality. It is simply how 1, 2, +, and = are interpreted by the human mind. They're standardized definitions. Side: yes
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