It's an interesting question and I guess it depends on what part of the world you're in incitement was an offence under the common law of England and Wales. It was an inchoate offence. It consisted of persuading, encouraging, instigating, pressuring, or threatening so as to cause another to commit a crime. ... The common law is now only relevant to offences committed before that date

It's a crime in my country Republic of Ireland ........

The Commission’s work on substantive criminal law complements the work of the Criminal Law Codification Advisory Committee, established under Part 14 of the Criminal Justice Act 2006, whose work is aimed at the development of a criminal code.

3.1 Inchoate offences: conspiracy, attempt and incitement

In November 2010, the Commission published its Report on Inchoate Offences (LRC 99-2010) (3rd Programme of Law Reform, Project 19), which followed from its 2008 Consultation Paper on Inchoate Offences (LRC CP 48-2008). The Report contains the Commission’s final recommendations for reform in the law concerning incitement, conspiracy and attempt, together with a draft Criminal Law (Inchoate Offences) Bill.

Incitement, conspiracy and attempt are called “inchoate offences” because they criminalise conduct which may be described as working towards the commission of a particular offence. For example, the complete offence of murder requires the wrongful killing of a human being; whereas the offence of attempted murder caters for cases where the accused tries, but fails, to kill the victim. Similarly, the offences of conspiracy to murder and incitement to murder provide for cases where the accused has made an agreement to kill (conspiracy), or has sought to persuade someone else to kill (incitement). Prosecutions for incitements, conspiracies and attempts are relatively infrequent compared to prosecutions for the offences to which they relate, but charges such as incitement to murder (usually called solicitation), conspiracy to defraud and attempted robbery remain an important part of the criminal law.

I just had a look at the situation regards the US ......

"Imminent lawless action" is a standard currently used that was established by the United States Supreme Court in Brandenburg v. Ohio (1969), for defining the limits of freedom of speech. Brandenburg clarified what constituted a "clear and present danger", the standard established by Schenck v. United States (1919), and overruled Whitney v. California (1927), which had held that speech that merely advocated violence could be made illegal. Under the imminent lawless action test, speech is not protected by the First Amendment if the speaker intends to incite a violation of the law that is both imminent and likely. While the precise meaning of "imminent" may be ambiguous in some cases, the court provided later clarification in Hess v. Indiana (1973). In this case, the court found that Hess's words did not fall outside the limits of protected speech, in part, because his speech "amounted to nothing more than advocacy of illegal action at some indefinite future time,"[1] and therefore did not meet the imminence requirement.

The two legal prongs that constitute incitement of imminent lawless action is as follows:

Advocacy of force or criminal activity does not receive First Amendment protections if (1) the advocacy is directed to inciting or producing imminent lawless action, and (2) is likely to incite or produce such action.[2]

That's interesting that speech is not protected by the first amendment if the speaker intends to incite a violation of the law .

Yes, you would be.

At best, it'll only harm reputation.

We are at war with people (ISIS) that tell others to kill non Islamic people.

That was the question you just asked. ISIS tells people to go and kill the infedels (anyone who does not believe as they believe).

So obviously they are guilty of a crime.

I use this analogy quite often with people who vote for the No Restriction abortion Democrat Party.

If you help elect the people who will keep legal No Restriction abortions of viable late term babies for any reason up to birth, you are partly responsibile for the deaths.

If you voted for politicians who would end this barbaric infanticide, you would be partly responsible for saving those lives.

This is common sense.

Possibly. It depends on the laws where you happen to be. It may in fact vary from state to state.

But basically, any encouragement to violence has a decent chance of getting the person who put it forward into legal trouble. You're writing out your own intent, and you're implying recognition as a reward for people carrying your intent out.

When the Left displays paintings of our President's severed head on public College walls, the people who allowed it to be put up on the wall will be responsible if a nutcase someday decapitates President Trump.

No different as when the Democrat Party kept race bating against police forces and soon after there was a rash of Cop assasinations.

Words matter and when the Left constantly demonizes those on the Right by calling them nazi's, racists, etc. etc., then crazy people will take it litterally and justify killng.

I believe you should be. Thats like taking a gun, shooting someone and then claiming you didn't killet them, but the bullet did. You did not necessarily touch them, however it was your actions that caused a chain effect. Hitler was the biggest inspirator of Nazi ideology, an ideology that suppressed and killed 6 million Jews, and Gays and many more. Regardless if he hadn't touched them, he was still held accountable.

My gut would be to say yes, it is. I know currently there is a girl who is being charged with egging her boyfriend into suicide. While she didn't exactly kill him herself, her push and utter disregard for a life is worthy of punishment. I don't however know what the law is, I think is varies from state to state, country to country.

Yes. This is directly inciting violence. Now, are you as guilty as the person who actually killed someone? In the case presented, no. If that's all it takes to inspire a person to go out and kill someone, they were probably going to do it anyway, as soon as they had a convenient excuse to springboard off of. But, that's not to say you couldn't be. Say, for instance, you targeted an individual whom you perceived to be vulnerable, and gave them an argument to kill someone that sounded compelling, perhaps even making it sound like the morally correct thing to do. More of the blame would be on your shoulders. Say you actually kidnapped someone. You kept them in a basement for two years and brainwashed them, convincing them to kill someone. Then, in fact, it could very well be argued that the blame is entirely yours. I suppose you could say that a spectrum is forming- but to answer your question, both legally and morally you would be guilty of a crime.