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Has anyone thought of an argument that fundamentally would fit with the pro-choice argument (btw I am pro-life)... even if the fetus is a "thing" and not a "person," it still belongs to both the father and the mother. This thing, then should be one-half the property of the father - it doesn't matter where it is located, does that ever matter with property? If that is the case, what right does the mother have to destroy his property without consent and/or compensation??? This seems to violate the basic property laws of Anglo-Saxon law to me... Furthermore, doesn't the father have a de facto trademark or copyright on his sperm??? It is a unique code, fully owned by him? Our world would certainly mandate his consent should we use his DNA for purposes of cloning, stem cell research, etc. Doesn't he own his genetic code - and isn't, at the point of conception, the embryo composed of half his DNA??? So then, I leave you, my pro-choice colleagues, with an intriguing question - Is it then proper that a joint owner in a partnership (a de facto partnership formed by two consenting adults who know the risks when they have intercourse - heck if you can have an oral contract, why can't sex form a contract of sorts???) single-handedly decides to destroy the whole of said company? In court cases, the murder of a pregnant mother counts as double homicide... This is due to the fact that the mother (obviously) didn't consent to her baby being aborted by these means. Then why shouldn't the father's lack of consent in such a case make a mother's decision to abort comparable to single homicide? In both cases, the end result is the same (disregarding the will of a parent of an embryo, and terminating a pregnancy without consent from a parent...)
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