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RSS Smol_frog

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4 most recent arguments.
1 point

In addition to the example of Russia, which is not a good general example because of the amount of power held by Putin, a majority of laws even here in the United States are reactionary and fail. Many of the laws attempting to attack the rights and freedoms of the alphabet mafia simply do not pass. Take for example Mississippi, where most of the laws that are proposed die- in fact, only one law tracked by the ACLU has even passed. Russia still has relatively few laws passed and it doesn't have nearly the same number of barriers to legislation that the US has, so I'm gonna have to disagree because the question asks if they are effective, not if they ever have any result whatsoever.

1 point

All this supports is that social movements have had successful social change. Yes, there has been some extent of social change, but it has ultimately led to no actual political change in Russia. Interestingly, your point on how there have been more protests since recent laws have passed actually supports causation opposite to what the question asks, as it is an example of a law (political change) pressuring more social change.

smol_frog(2) Clarified
1 point

I should clarify: reactionary change in this case being laws passed passed to explicitly attack what the goals of the movement.

1 point

No, social movements are not an effective way to pressure states into political change, at least not in the intended direction. Take Russia for example: as LGBT people have continued to gain more publicity and the movements have gained more traction, there has actually been reactionary change; the movement gaining traction caused the passing of the "Russian gay propaganda law", which is a law against the appearance or promotion of "non-standard sexual relations". So yeah no, not the case.

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